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First Aid and Physiology Questions and Answers

If you are stung by an insect, you should:
Answer : Carefully scrape the site using a blade or a card.

Which of the following most accurately describes a person's condition after being bitten by a poisonous snake?
Answer : A noticeable bite on the skin, pain and swelling in the area of the bite, labored breathing, nausea.

When treating a snakebite, what is one method that should never be conducted?
Answer : Suck the venom from the wound with your mouth

When caring for a snakebite always apply ice immediately if it is available.
Answer : False.

What is the first step of the ABC checklist?
Answer : Free the airway

If a person has an obstructed airway and is not breathing but is conscious, you should:
Answer : Ask "Are you choking?".

The one rescuer CPR series is comprised of:
Answer : 15 compressions/2 ventilations.

Blood loss is life threatening if the loss is:
Answer : One or more quarts.

The priority action for treating an open wound should be to:
Answer : Control bleeding.

If forced to tie on a tourniquet to stop severe bleeding, loosening of the tourniquet should be accomplished:
Answer : By a doctor as soon as you are able to get to one.

Internal bleeding:
Answer : Is not easily recognized.

Which is a not a sign or symptom of shock?
Answer : Sunken eyes.

When treating a victim for shock, elevate the feet:
Answer : Unless the victim has a head injury.

A shock victim should not lie down if he:
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

Do not move an injured person:
Answer : Unless they are in danger of further injury.

Which of the following would be a desired remedy for accidental poisoning?
Answer : Drinking water or milk.

When blisters form on the skin from burning, the treatment should:
Answer : Keep the blisters from breaking and becoming open wounds that might become infected.

If someone experiences third degree burns, you should:
Answer : Treat the victim for shock and you should not remove any clothing.

Sunburn may be painful if encountered, but can do no damage worth serious consideration.
Answer : False.

Wet feet should be avoided due to harmful effects (resembling frostbite) at:
Answer : Even moderate temperatures.

Illness caused by exhaustion, cold weather, and exposure is called:
Answer : Hypothermia

Heat exhaustion is caused by:
Answer : An excessive loss of water and salt.

Frost bite should be treated by:
Answer : Rewarming the affected area.

What should be the first step in treating a compound fracture of the leg?
Answer : Treat the patient for shock.

If you sprain your ankle, you should:
Answer : Leave your shoe on and wrap a cloth around your foot and ankle for support.

When treating a limb injury,:
Answer : Always suspect a fracture and, if in doubt, splint.

When treating a severe eye injury,:
Answer : If possible, also cover the other eye to minimize movement of the affected eye.

1. Hyperventilation is a condition that leads to:
Answer : An abnormal loss of carbon dioxide.

2. Which could cause hyperventilation?
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

3. The excessive loss of carbon dioxide produces:
Answer : An alkalotic state.

4. Which symptom of hyperventilation can be both subjective and objective?
Answer : Rapid breathing.

5. Which of these can be a treatment for hyperventilation?
Answer : A controlled rate of breathing.

6. How can hyperventilation be prevented?
Answer : By constant use of the pause breathing method.

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1. What is the most important cause of SDO (Spatial Disorientation)?
Answer : A conflict between the focal and ambient modes of the visual system.

2. The motion and gravity detecting organs are:
Answer : The vestibular system.

3. It is normal for pilots to believe their aircraft "talks" to them. This belief:
Answer : Enables much valuable information on aircraft performance and response to be received.

4. You are kept oriented without "thinking" about it by the:
Answer : Ambient visual mode.

5. The focal visual mode can keep you oriented but it requires:
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

6. What is the focal mode visual field?
Answer : Between 2 and 6 degrees.

7. In regard to attention allocation, the ambient visual mode is:
Answer : Fast in information processing.

8. What are the three basic elements which lead to disorientation mishaps?
Answer : Distraction, time, and illusion.

9. The "Giant Hand" perception can occur during:
Answer : Incapacitating disorientation.

10. What do incapacitating and recognized disorientation have in common?
Answer : The pilot is aware it is occurring.

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A key element for occurrence of unrecognized disorientation is distraction during IMC:
Answer : In an aircraft that doesn’t "talk" to the pilot.

What is the most dangerous vestibular illusion?
Answer : Coriolis.

The nystagmus illusion:
Answer : Almost always follows coriolis illusion.

The Giant Hand Phenomenon can occur:
Answer : After a steep banked turn or the coriolis illusion.

The graveyard spin/spiral illusion occurs:
Answer : In IMC after a rotary motion of longer than 20 seconds is stopped.

A somotogravic illusion is most probable:
Answer : All of the answers are correct

What is the best prevention of a visual illusion?
Answer : Anticipation.

Haze, fog, dust, and smoke can:
Answer : Make runways appear further away.

If there is a lack of distant objects on which to focus,:
Answer : Space myopia may occur.

Landing illusions are reduced by:
Answer : Standardization of lighting at all fields.

Which is a protective measure to prevent flicker vertigo?
Answer : Turn off the anti-collision light when possible in weather.

Low level cockpit lighting:
Answer : Increases the ability to dark adapt and see outside the aircraft

Cockpit design can be a factor in spatial disorientation. Why should the airspeed, altitude, attitude, and heading indicators be clustered?
Answer : So they can be crosschecked with only eye movement.

Frequent transitions from VMC to IMC are dangerous. Each transition can easily take:
Answer : 10 seconds or longer.

If SDO occurs during IMC, the key to recovery is:
Answer : Highly disciplined instrument crosscheck.

When using the autopilot during recovery from SDO,:
Answer : Keep flying the aircraft mentally and watch the gages as the autopilot makes the recovery.

Motion sickness:
Answer : Can result after a severe SDO incident.

Motion sickness symptoms include:
Answer : Apathy.

Motion sickness susceptibility decreases:
Answer : With good outside references.

Which type of hypoxia is caused by a drop of oxygen pressure in the lungs?
Answer : Hypoxic hypoxia.

What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in air?
Answer : 21%.

Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures states that the total pressure of a given mixture of gases is:
Answer : Equal to the sum of its partial pressures.

At 10,000 feet the partial pressure of:
Answer : Oxygen is only 68% of what it is at sea level.

Differences in partial pressures between two vessels separated by a permeable barrier will:
Answer : Equilibrate as a result of gaseous diffusion.

Respiration has four distinct subprocesses. The movement of the chest and lungs to move air in and out of the lungs is referred to as:
Answer : Breathing.

Where is external respiration accomplished?
Answer : The alveoli.

The lungs provide a surface area for gas exchange of:
Answer : 700 to 800 square feet.

Oxygen combines with hemoglobin in red blood cells in the blood to form oxyhemoglobin. This process is called:
Answer : Saturation.

Which condition would result in a reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?
Answer : Sickle cell anemia.

Carbon monoxide:
Answer : Has a 200 times greater affinity for combining with hemoglobin than does oxygen.

Alcohol poisoning can result in histotoxic hypoxia by:
Answer : Preventing the tissues from reacting with molecular oxygen.

When could blood pooling, a cause of stagnant hypoxia, occur?
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

Which is a subjective symptom of hypoxia?
Answer : Tunnel vision.

Which is an objective symptom of hypoxia?
Answer : Poor muscular coordination.

Chances are that it's too late to do anything to help yourself by the time which subjective symptom of hypoxia is exhibited?
Answer : Euphoria.

Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin, most noticeable in the early stages around the:
Answer : Lips.

In terms of altitude and arterial saturation, hypoxia:
Answer : Has been described as a four stage process.

During the indifferent stage of hypoxia, between zero and 10,000 feet, the only demonstrable adverse effect is:
Answer : On dark adaptation.

Between 10,000 and 15,000 feet a decreasing oxygen supply produces a gradual increase in the heart rate. This occurs during the:
Answer : Compensatory stage.

In addition to the increased cardiac output during the disturbance stage, the:
Answer : Body seems to redistribute blood to those organs most sensitive to oxygen deficit.

Hypoxia generally becomes evident at about:
Answer : 15,000 feet.

At 20,000 feet the period of useful consciousness is:
Answer : 15 to 20 minutes.

The critical stage of hypoxia is the stage in which:
Answer : Consciousness is lost almost immediately.

What is the most important individual difference in tolerance to hypoxia?
Answer : Acclimatization over a long period of time to living at high altitudes.

Physical fitness can improve your tolerance to hypoxia. Which is particularly beneficial?
Answer : Aerobic exercises.

All other things being equal,:
Answer : Oxygen requirements increase as the environmental temperature increases.

Under circumstances of rapid decompression, the time of useful consciousness is reduced:
Answer : By about 1/3.

What is the time of useful consciousness at 43,000 feet?
Answer : 15 seconds or less.

What is the first of the five steps for treating hypoxia?
Answer : Go to 100% oxygen.

When remedying hypoxia, check your oxygen equipment to see that it is functioning correctly. Check:
Answer : All of the answers are correct

The remedy for hypoxia requires that you:
Answer : Use the pause breathing method.

The "general rule" for oxygen usage is that all occupants must be provided with supplemental oxygen on flights in which the cabin altitude exceeds:
Answer : 15,000 feet.

Flights of no more than 30 minutes duration without oxygen for the minimum flight crew can be flown up to:
Answer : 14,000 feet cabin altitude.

Altitude hypoxia occurs whenever the inspired air drops below the pressure required for keeping:
Answer : 87% of the blood saturated with oxygen.

According to Boyle's Law,:
Answer : Gases trapped in body cavities expand as altitude increases.

An inflight ear block can occur:
Answer : If the lower orifice of the eustachian tube fails to function adequately.

An ear block is much more likely to occur:
Answer : On descent.

Which is an accepted technique for ventilating the ear on ascent?
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

To prevent an inflight ear block on descent, use the:
Answer : Valsalva maneuver.

A sinus block is similar to an inflight ear block but: Answer : Can occur only on descent.

The recommended first step in treating a sinus block is to:
Answer : Ascend until the pain stops.

What is the treatment for alleviating ascent related inflight tooth pain?
Answer : Descend to the altitude of the departure airport.

What is the treatment for alleviating ascent related inflight tooth pain?
Answer : Descend to site level.

The treatment for alleviating descent related inflight tooth pain is identical to the treatment for:
Answer : A sinus block.

Which should be avoided prior to flight to reduce the problem of gas expansion in the gastrointestinal tract?
Answer : All of the answers are correct.

The valsalva maneuver:
Answer : Can cause vertigo.

Which is a byproduct of the large intestines during normal digestion?
Answer : Carbon dioxide.

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1. In the event of a rapid or explosive decompression, do NOT:
Answer : Attempt to hold your breath.

"The amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution." is:
Answer : Henry's Law.

2. Henry's Law is demonstrated in the occurrence of:
Answer : Decompression sickness.

3. Under conditions of slow decompression (normal ascent),:
Answer : Excess nitrogen is vented off harmlessly by the lungs.

4. What is the most common manifestation of decompression sickness?
Answer : Bends.

5. The symptom of bends, dull, aching pain in the bones or joints,:
Answer : Usually subsides during descent.

6. What is a symptom for paresthesia (creeps)?
Answer : Numbness in localized areas of the skin.

7. Chokes, as a manifestation of decompression sickness, are:
Answer : Rare, but very dangerous.

8. Type II decompression sickness results from nitrogen bubble formation affecting the:
Answer : Central nervous system.

9. What is the threshold altitude for the onset of decompression sickness?
Answer : 18,000 ft.

10. Studies have shown that there is an approximately nine fold increase in liability to experience symptoms of DCS between the ages of:
Answer : 17 to 20 and 27 to 29.

11. Increased nitrogen content from scuba diving can result in DCS at altitudes as low as:
Answer : 8000 feet.