LearJet Training Resources
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Part 135 Training Resources
1.
Steady illumination of any of the amber fuel system valve lights on the fuel control panel, except FUEL JETTISON valve lights (if installed), indicates
A.
the corresponding valves are in the position selected.
B.
the corresponding valves are not operative, or power to the valves have failed.
C.
the corresponding valve is in the position selected.
D.
the corresponding valves are not in the position selected.
2.
When XFER is selected,
A.
the STANDBY PUMPS will be deenergized.
B.
the STANDBY PUMPS will be deenergized, the cross flow valve will open, and the transfer pump will be energized.
C.
the STANDBY PUMPS will be deenergized, the cross flow valve will open, the fuselage tank valve will open, and the transfer pump will be deenergized.
D.
the STANDBY PUMPS will be deenergized, the cross flow valve will open, the fuselage tank valve will open, and the transfer pump will be energized.
3.
True/False DO NOT crossflow with jet pump inoperative. Engine starvation may occur due to fuel being pumped through open crossflow valve into opposite wing.
A.
True
B.
False
4.
If the crossflow valve fails to open, fuselage fuel cannot be transferred forward to the wing tanks using the transfer pump.
A.
However, fuselage fuel will gravity flow into the right wing tank until heads are equal. A right wing heavy condition will occur.
B.
However, fuselage fuel will gravity flow into the left wing tank until heads are equal. A left wing heavy condition will occur.
C.
Not to worry, just keep flying everything is going to be OK
D.
However, fuselage fuel will stay in the fuselage tank.
5.
Each engine is equipped with an ignition exciter and two igniter plugs; Operational time limits are:
A.
2-minutes ON, 15-minutes OFF; then 2-minutes ON, 123-minutes OFF.
B.
2-minutes ON, 3-minutes OFF; then 2-minutes ON, 23-minutes OFF: or 5-minutes ON, 25-minutes OFF.
C.
5-minutes ON, 25-minutes OFF.
D.
There is no time limitation on the ignition exciter
6.
If extended duty ignition exciters are not installed and the system time limits are exceeded,
A.
the ignition exciters should not need replacement.
B.
the ignition exciters must not be replaced.
C.
the ignition exciters must be replaced.
D.
the exciters must be excited.
7.
While manually adding fuel additive during refueling, the refueling rate shall not be less than
A.
30 GPM (113.6 LPM) nor greater than 60 GPM (227.1 LPM). During topping off, refueling rate may be less than 30 GPM (113.6 LPM).
B.
300 GPM (1113.6 LPM) nor greater than 600 GPM (2227.1 LPM).
C.
3 GPM nor greater than 6 GPM
D.
30 GPM (113.6 LPM).
8.
The wing structure temperature indicator is marked with green, yellow, and red temperature range arcs. When the indicator pointer is in the green arc,
A.
the wing structure is above 350° F and is warm enough so that ice will not adhere.
B.
the wing structure is above 35° F and is warm enough so that ice will not adhere.
C.
the wing structure is below 35° F and is cold enough so that ice will not adhere.
D.
the wing structure is so icy that additional ice will polish itself smooth, and will not adhere.
9.
The wing anti-ice system utilizes engine bleed air and
A.
should be used in concurrence with Nacelle Heat, Windshield Heat, and Radome Anti-Ice.
B.
should be used in concurrence with Windshield Heat.
C.
should be used in concurrence with Windshield Heat, and Radome Anti-Ice.
D.
should be never be used in concurrence with Anti-Ice.
10.
If it is necessary to land with any ice, or suspected ice, on the wing leading edge,
A.
Do not do anything, everything is going to be OK.
B.
perform the landing procedure for EMERGENCY PROCEDURES.
C.
perform the landing procedure for WING HEAT FAILURE in Section III, EMERGENCY PROCEDURES.
D.
perform the landing procedure for ICE ON WINGLET in Section III, EMERGENCY PROCEDURES.
11.
In all emergencies, the overriding consideration must be to:
A.
Maintain Airplane Control
B.
Analyze the Situation
C.
Take Proper Action
D.
All three above A, B, & C are correct
12.
Land as soon as possible means
A.
A landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield considering aircraft gross weight.
B.
A landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield considering the severity of the emergency.
C.
A landing should be accomplished.
D.
A landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and aircraft gross weight.
13.
Single-engine approach and landing is flown essentially the same as with both engines except for the following:
A.
Final Approach; GEAR DOWN, Flaps - 10°
B.
Final Approach; GEAR DOWN, Flaps - 20°
C.
Final Approach; GEAR DOWN, Flaps - 40°
D.
Final Approach; GEAR DOWN, Flaps - 20°. Final Approach Speed; VREF + 10 KIAS. When landing is assured; Flaps - 40°, VREF•
14.
Do not attempt to retract the landing gear once Emergency Gear Extension has been selected.
A.
To do so may cause excessive air pressure to be introduced into the hydraulic return lines, thereby rupturing the reservoir.
B.
To do so may cause excessive gas.
C.
To do so may cause excessive hydraulic return.
D.
To do so may cause excessive hydraulic pressure to be introduced into the hydraulic return lines, thereby rupturing the reservoir.
15.
Once Emergency Gear Extension has been selected, the left and right red UNSAFE gear lights will be lighted; also the green LOCKED DOWN lights will be lighted, indicating the gear is down and locked.
A.
The red UNSAFE lights will be extinguished.
B.
The red UNSAFE lights will be extinguished, due to the main gear inboard doors remaining open in the emergency mode.
C.
The red UNSAFE lights will remain lighted due to the main gear inboard doors remaining open in the emergency mode.
D.
The red UNSAFE lights will be blinking lighted due to the main gear inboard doors opening and closing as they flap in the breeze.
16.
True/False The auxiliary hydraulic pump has an operational cycle of 3 minutes ON and 20 minutes OFF. Operation at more frequent intervals may result in overheating the pump drive motor.
A.
True
B.
False
17.
True/False Illumination of a red FUEL PRESS warning light is an indication of loss of fuel pressure to the engine. Probable cause is jet pump failure.
A.
True
B.
False
18.
If the left transfer valve (XFER-FLLL valve) fails to close after completion of fuel transfer, the crossflow valve will also remain open. In this event,
A.
operation of either standby pump will transfer some fuel back into the fuselage tank.
B.
operation of either standby pump will transfer some fuel back into the fuselage tank. Additionally, fuel may gravity flow from both wings into the fuselage tank.
C.
Not to worry, everything is going to be OK. You will actually have more fuel after landing than you had in flight.
D.
fuel may gravity flow from both wings into the fuselage tank.
19.
V2, Takeoff Safety Speed is defined as
A.
The actual speed at 35 feet above the runway surface
B.
The actual speed at 35 feet above the runway surface as demonstrated in flight
C.
The actual speed at 35 feet above the runway surface as demonstrated in flight during single-engine takeoff, or until clear of obstacle to produce the maximum climb gradient.
D.
The imaginary speed at 35,000 feet above the runway surface as demonstrated in flight during a single-engine takeoff and climb.
20.
The second segment begins at
A.
the end of the runway.
B.
the end of the stopway and continues to a height above the runway of 15 feet.
C.
the end of the runway plus or minus 1,500 feet and V2 speed.
D.
the end of gear retraction and continues to a height above the runway of 1,500 feet and V2 speed.
21.
The Final segment climb begins
A.
at the end of the second segment and ends at a height of at least 1,500 feet AGL. The gross climb gradient must be at least 1.2% with one engine not operating and the other engine at maximum continuous thrust.
B.
at the height of at least 1,500 feet AGL.
C.
at the other end of the runway.
D.
at the end of the second segment and ends at maximum continuous thrust.
22.
Takeoff Limitations include
A.
Brake Energy Limits.
B.
Obstacle Climb Limits, and Brake Energy Limits.
C.
2nd Segment Climb Limits; Obstacle Climb Limits, and Brake Energy Limits.
D.
Max Certified TOW, Max TO WT for Altitude and Temperature;
Takeoff Field Length; 2nd Segment Climb Limits; Obstacle Climb Limits, and Brake Energy Limits.
23.
Landing Limitations Include
A.
Max Approach, Balked Landing Climb, and Landing Weight for Altitude and Temperature.
B.
Balked Landing Climb, and Landing Weight for Altitude and Temperature.
C.
Max Certified Landing Weight; Max Approach, Balked Landing Climb, and Landing Weight for Altitude and Temperature.
D.
Max Certified Landing Weight.
24.
Flaps 10 Overspeed
A.
Provides the maximum hot-day, high altitude performance that balances accelerate-stop distance, brake energy, and V2 speeds.
B.
Provides maximum balance between accelerate-stop distance, accelerate-go distance, landing distance, missed approach speeds, brake energy, and V2 speeds.
C.
Provides high altitude performance, V1, Vr and V2 speeds.
D.
Provides hot-day, high altitude performance that balances accelerate-stop distance.
25.
Set EPR at the value derived from the table.
A.
EPR's below this value exceed the manufacturer's limits. EPR's above this line will not meet the published performance data.
B.
It does not matter what the EPR settings are, because the EPR gauges should never be trusted.
C.
EPR's above this value exceed the manufacturer's limits. EPR's below this line will not meet the published performance data.
D.
Use RPM and Temperature during takeoff, not EPR
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.