ATP QUIZ #6
Instructor's Name___________________________
 
Student's Name_____________________________ Date__________________
 
Instructions: Answer the multiple-choice question with the best possible answer. Write the answer to the essay question in the space provided. If more space is needed, use the reverse side.
 
1. What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
 
 
2. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
 
 
3. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
 
 
4. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
a. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
b. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
c. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
 
 
5. When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach
a. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
b. altitude may be higher than it appears.
c. altitude may be lower than it appears.
 
 
6. The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
a. somatogravic illusion.
b. autokinesis.
c. inversion illusion.
 
 
7. In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as
a. somatogravic illusion.
b. autokinesis.
c. ground lighting illusion.
 
 
8. When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too
a. high.
b. low.
c. shallow.
 
 
9. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
a. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
b. Look only at far away, dim lights.
c. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
 
 
10. While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as
a. Coriolis illusion.
b. the leans.
c. autokinesis.
 
 
11. Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute

 

 

12. When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft
a. above the horizon and increasing in size.
b. on the horizon with little relative movement.
c. on the horizon and increasing in size.

 

13. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
a. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
b. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
c. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

 

14. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
a. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
b. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
c. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft.
 
 
15. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
 
 
16. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
a. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.
b. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.
c. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.
 
 
17. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
 
 
18. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?
a. Maintain a constant attitude.
b. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
c. Maintain a constant altitude.
 
 
19. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
a. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes.
b. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour.
c. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
 
 
20. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
a. 6,000 ft/min.
b. 1,500 ft/min.
c. 4,500 ft/min.
 
 
21. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
a. 40 knots.
b. 90 knots.
c. 80 knots.
 
22. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
a. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
b. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
c. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
 
 
23. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
a. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
b. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
c. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
 
 
24. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?
a. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface.
b. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
c. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
 
 
25. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
 
 
 
 
26. When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?
a. About 1 hour before sunrise.
b. At midnight.
c. After sunrise.
 
27. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
a. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
b. Over the arctic region.
c. Over the eye of a hurricane.
 
 
28. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that
a. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.
b. a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing.
c. a layer of warmer air exists above.
 
 
 
29. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
a. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
b. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
c. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.

 

30. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
a. 4 °C per 1,000 feet.
b. 2 °C per 1,000 feet.
c. 3 °C per 1,000 feet.
 
 
 
31. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
a. At the poles.
b. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°).
c. At the Equator.
 
 
32. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?
a. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
b. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
c. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
 
 
 
33. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
a. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air
temperature.
b. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
c. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
 
 
34. What is a feature of supercooled water?
 

 

35. What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
 

 

36. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
 
 
37. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
a. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
b. Movement of air over a colder surface.
c. Expansion of air as it rises.
 
 
38. What is a feature of a stationary front?
a. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather.
b. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.
c. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface.
 
 
39. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
a. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
b. Wind direction shifts to the left.
c. Atmospheric pressure increases.
 
 
40. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
 
 
 
41. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?
a. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft.
b. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.
c . teady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.
 
 
 
42. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?
a. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.
b. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
c. Air mass thunderstorms.
 
 
 
43. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
 
 
 
44. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates
 
 
45. In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?
a. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
b. Warm fronts or occluded fronts.
c. Cold front occlusions.
 
 
 
46. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
a. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.
b. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart.
c. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
 
 
 
47. What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?
a. Establish a course across the trough.
b. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.
c. Climb or descend to a smoother level.
 
 
 
48. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?
a. Indication will drop to zero.
b. Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
c . ndication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.
 
 
 
49. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
a. A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the
inversion.
b. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10 °C.
c. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
 
 
 
50. Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?
a. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.
b. The jetstream is located north of the surface systems.
c. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front.
Misc. ATP References