1.	(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1345Z. B. 1445Z. C. 1645Z.

2.	(Refer to figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out. A. 44 minutes. B. 48 minutes. C. 52 minutes.

3.	(Refer to figure 21.) En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Municipal at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight? A. 1516. B. 1521. C. 1526.

4.	Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

5.	FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? A. 60. B. 70. C. 90.

6.	An ATC clearance provides A. priority over all other traffic. B. adequate separation from all traffic. C. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

7.	From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations? A. Clearance delivery. B. Tower, just before takeoff. C. Ground control, on initial contact.

8.	Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

9.	A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the A. satellite airport's UNICOM. B. associated Flight Service Station. C. primary airport's control tower.

10.	When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. C. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.

11.	What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? A. Automated Flight Service Station. B. Air Traffic Control Tower. C. Air Route Traffic Control Center.

12.	(Refer to figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is A. below the glide slope. B. on the glide slope. C. above the glide slope.

13.	(Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. B. Runway 22 directly into the wind. C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

14.	An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates A. there are obstructions on the airport. B. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

15.

(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? A. Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. B. Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service. C. Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

16.	(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

17.	(Refer to figure 26, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas? A. 2,555 feet MSL. B. 3,449 feet MSL. C. 3,349 feet MSL.

18.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning A. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. B. nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. C. noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

19.

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 415 lb Rear seat occupants 110 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks 19 gal Baggage 32 lb A. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits. B. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward. C. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

20.	Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be A. less stable at all speeds. B. less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds. C. less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

21.

(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.             WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight          1,350       51.5 Pilot and front passenger         310       --- Rear passengers            96       --- Fuel, 38 gal               ---       --- Oil, 8 qt               ---       -0.2 A. 79.2, utility category. B. 80.8, utility category. C. 81.2, normal category.

22.	(Refer to figure 62.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank? A. 30 pounds. B. 50 pounds. C. 300 pounds.

23.

If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster A. airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll. B. groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point. C. groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.

24.

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. B. concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. C. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate.

25.	In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A. Making a rational judgement. B. Recognizing hazardous thoughts. C. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.