1.

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to A. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path. B. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport. C. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

2.	One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed. C. increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

3.	What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane? A. To control yaw. B. To control overbanking tendency. C. To control roll.

4.	When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium? A. During unaccelerated flight. B. When the aircraft is accelerating. C. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

5.	During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to A. stall at a higher airspeed. B. have a tendency to spin. C. be more difficult to control.

6.

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway. B. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. C. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

7.	Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? A. VA. B. VLO. C. VNE.

8.	(Refer to figure 31, illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is A. 135°. B. 270°. C. 360°.

9.	(Refer to figure 27, areas 4 and 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport . Which VOR indication is correct? A. 1. B. 4. C. 6.

10.	(Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? A. 101°. B. 108°. C. 281°.

11.	(Refer to figure 21, area 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct? A. 2. B. 5. C. 9.

12.	(Refer to figure 30, illustration 3.) What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station? A. 025°. B. 115°. C. 295°.

13.	How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)? A. 22. B. 24. C. 25.

14.	What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine? A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. B. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding. C. Test each brake and the parking brake.

15.	What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller? A. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed. B. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. C. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

16.	Excessively high engine temperatures will A. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins. B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

17.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting A. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM. B. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication. C. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

18.	Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing? A. Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent. B. Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity. C. Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.

19.

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to A. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. B. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

20.	What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available? A. The next higher octane aviation gas. B. The next lower octane aviation gas. C. Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

21.	In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate A. a turn momentarily. B. correctly when on a north or south heading. C. a turn toward the south.

22.	(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration? A. Upper limit of the green arc. B. Upper limit of the white arc. C. Lower limit of the green arc.

23.	If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected? A. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator. B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. C. The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

24.	Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates A. calibrated altitude at field elevation. B. absolute altitude at field elevation. C. true altitude at field elevation.

25.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. C. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

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