ATP QUIZ #4

Instructor's Name___________________________
 
Student's Name_____________________________ Date__________________
 
Instructions: Answer the multiple-choice question with the best possible answer. Write the answer to the essay question in the space provided. If more space is needed, use the reverse side.

 

1. The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is how many knots?
 

 

2. What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?

 

 
3. What is the purpose of MOA's?

 

 
4. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?

 

5. What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

 

 
6. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
 

 

7. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL).

 

 
8. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems.
 
 
 
9. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
 
 

 

10. Identify REIL.
 

 

11. What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night?
A. 10 miles.
B. 15 miles.
C. 5 miles.
 
 
12. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of, and what are it’s indications?
 

 

13. At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI?
A. 85 knots.
B. 75 knots.
C. 80 knots.
 
14. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
 
 
 
15. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
 

 

16. When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A. At the MDA published or a circling approach.
B. At the published DH.
C. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

 

17. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?
A. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
B. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
C. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.
 
18. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?
A. Outer compass locator.
B. Inner marker.
C. Middle compass locator.
 
 
19. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
A. Inner marker.
B. Middle compass locator.
C. Outer compass locator.
 
 
 
20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
A. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
C. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
 
 
21. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?
A. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
 
 
22. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
A. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
B. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz.
C. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
 
 
23. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?
A. Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light.
B. A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light.
C. A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.
 
 
24. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?

 

 

25. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?
 

Misc. ATP References