1.

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying A. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. B. below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. C. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

2.	The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the A. position of the CG. B. speed of the airplane. C. abruptness at which the load is applied.

3.	During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to A. stall at a higher airspeed. B. have a tendency to spin. C. be more difficult to control.

4.

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway. B. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. C. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

5.	(Refer to figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station? A. East. B. Southeast. C. West.

6.	(Refer to figure 30, illustration 2.) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station? A. 010°. B. 145°. C. 190°.

7.	A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to A. avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure. B. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. C. always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

8.

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective. B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition. C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

9.	With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be A. more susceptible to icing. B. equally susceptible to icing. C. susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

10.

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would A. experience avionics equipment failure. B. probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment. C. probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

11.	Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the A. presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass. B. difference in the location between true north and magnetic north. C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

12.	(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed? A. 65 MPH. B. 100 MPH. C. 165 MPH.

13.	What is true altitude? A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface. C. The height above the standard datum plane.

14.	In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if A. a left turn is entered from a west heading. B. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading. C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

15.	(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1345Z. B. 1445Z. C. 1545Z.

16.	(Refer to figure 24.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out. A. 35 minutes. B. 39 minutes. C. 44 minutes.

17.	How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots? A. 2.45 NM. B. 3.35 NM. C. 4.08 NM.

18.	Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

19.	If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code A. 0000. B. 1200. C. 4096.

20.	The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally A. 1,200 feet AGL. B. 3,000 feet AGL. C. 4,000 feet AGL.

21.	(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is A. at the surface. B. 3,000 feet MSL. C. 3,100 feet MSL.

22.	(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is A. left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18. B. left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36. C. right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

23.	After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control? A. When advised by the tower to do so. B. Prior to turning off the runway. C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

24.	A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits A. white and green alternating flashes. B. two quick, white flashes between green flashes. C. green, yellow, and white flashes.

25.	(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

26.

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected? A. Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings. B. Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather. C. Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

27.	The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to A. look to the side of the object and scan slowly. B. scan the visual field very rapidly. C. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.

28.	Most midair collision accidents occur during A. hazy days. B. clear days. C. cloudy nights.

29.

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B. The other aircraft is crossing to the right. C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

30.	Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft? A. Unusable fuel and undrainable oil. B. Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment. C. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.

31.

(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.          WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight       1,350       51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380       --- Fuel, 48 gal           288       --- Oil, 8 qt           ---       --- A. 78.2, normal category. B. 79.2, normal category. C. 80.4, utility category.

32.	Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in A. tightness across the forehead. B. loss of muscular power. C. an increased sense of well-being.

33.

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A. shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B. having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. C. leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.

34.

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. B. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. C. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

35.	An aircraft`s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A. July 1, next year. B. July 13, next year. C. July 31, next year.

36.	If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? A. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level. B. The elevation of the departure area. C. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

37.	May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? A. Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. B. Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. C. No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

38.	What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)? A. They are mandatory. B. They are voluntary. C. For Informational purposes only.

39.

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during A. the entire flight time at those altitudes. B. that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes. C. that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

40.	What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 4 miles.

41.	Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? A. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. B. Make all turns to the left. C. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

42.	The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A. Federal Aviation Administration. B. pilot in command. C. aircraft manufacturer.

43.	A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A. August 10, 2 years later. B. August 31, 3 years later. C. August 31, 2 years later.

44.	(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are A. 1 mile and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C. 3 miles and clear of clouds.

45.

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? A. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

46.	If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A. August 8, 2 years later. B. August 31, next year. C. August 31, 2 years later.

47.

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review. B. A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. C. An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

48.	What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms? A. Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area. B. Moderate or severe turbulence. C. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

49.	What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass? A. Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. B. Poor visibility and smooth air. C. Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.

50.	Where does wind shear occur? A. Only at higher altitudes. B. Only at lower altitudes. C. At all altitudes, in all directions.

51.

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by A. terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B. warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C. the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

52.	If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate A. the actual altitude above sea level. B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level. C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

53.	When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request A. an outlook briefing. B. a standard briefing. C. an abbreviated briefing.

54.	Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are A. squall line thunderstorms. B. steady-state thunderstorms. C. warm front thunderstorms.

55.	Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain A. airport advisory frequencies. B. VOR and NDB frequencies. C. ATIS frequencies.

56.	AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination to A. only IFR pilots. B. only VFR pilots. C. all pilots.

57.	(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are A. 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL. B. 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL. C. 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

58.

(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes A. overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z. B. overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z. C. overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

59.	(Refer to figure 20.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart. A. Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet. B. Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet. C. Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.

60.	(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low A. ceiling. B. visibility. C. ceiling and visibility.

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