1. Normal spoiler retraction is about 6 seconds and slam down retraction is less than: Answer : 1 second. 2. When performing the autopilot monitor check it is: Answer : Not required that the ADI and HSI flags be retracted to complete the check. 3. When should the strobe light be turned OFF? Answer : All of the answers are correct. For gusty wind conditions, an increase in approach speed of one half the gust factor is recommended While taxiing you should maintain a minimum RPM that keeps the windshield clear 6. Why should you not select MAX on the cabin air switch while on the ground? Answer : There is no ram air through the heat exchanger and damage to components may occur Power for the auxiliary heater must be supplied by an engine generator or APU. 8. Anti-ice systems should be turned ON prior to flight into visible moisture and: Answer : Ram air temperature of 10 degrees C or below. 9. Answer : All of the answers are correct. Flight Level 180 check: Altimeter - set at 29.92" Hg. Cool-fan switch - OFF or FAN. RECOG LT switch - OFF 1. When experiencing a pitch upset, the first action is to maintain control and adjust power as required. The pilot should then: Answer : Press and hold the wheel master switch 2. On any speed excursions beyond MMO the elevator control must be smoothly and steadily applied to prevent: Answer : Encountering excessive aileron activity and airframe buffet. 3. A pitch axis malfunction or pitch trim system runaway can result in: Answer : Extremely high airspeeds and require control forces in excess of 75 pounds for recovery. 4. What warning should be observed in the event a nose down pitch upset occurs? Answer : Do not extend the spoilers. 5. In an emergency, descent at 0.81 MI or 260 KIAS as appropriate for altitude, descent from 45,000 to 15,000 feet requires approximately: Answer : 2 minutes 45 seconds Crew oxygen masks - DON, select 100% oxygen until smoke and fumes are eliminated. Passenger oxygen masks - ON until smoke and fumes are eliminated 7. During emergency descent, if time and conditions permit, what should also be done? Answer : All of these, if time and conditions permit. A pitch axis malfunction is indicated by unwanted control column movement or elevator control system binding. 1. What is the approximate hydroplaning speed on surface water of the Gates LearJet 30 Series aircraft? Answer : 110 knots. Once V1 has been passed the aircraft stopping capability is completely unknown. 3. With either engine computer inoperative the aircraft may be flown: Answer : For ferry flight only No more than three consecutive starter assist airstarts should be attempted to prevent severe battery drain and generator burnout. If both 275 amp current limiters have failed: Electrical load - REDUCE Land as soon as practical. After landing, replace failed 275 amp current limiters prior to next flight. 6. How is instrument static source blockage indicated? Answer : Incorrect readings of the altimeter and/or the rate-of-climb indicator. 7. If both left and right stall warning systems fail, stalls may be avoided by reference to the: Answer : Airspeed indicator. 8. In a nose up attitude, approximately how long will it take to jettison the tip tank fuel? Answer : Five minutes. In the event of an engine driven pump and same side standby pump failure, what is the maximum altitude to which you may expect maximum suction feed? 25,000 feet The maximum altitude for suction feed of fuel to the engine is 25,000 feet. 1. What should the normal operating engine oil temperature be? Answer : 30 to 127 degrees C. 2. Which of the following is a maximum overspeed limit of the engine? Answer : All of these are overspeed limits. 3. What is the maximum oil temperature? Answer : 140 degrees C. 4. A hot section inspection is required anytime the ITT exceeds what temperature? Answer : 880 degrees C. 5. The maximum ITT limit for start is: Answer : 860 degrees C. 6. What is the normal hydraulic system pressure in the LearJet? Answer : 1550 PSI. Takeoff is prohibited with a runway water or slush accumulation exceeding 3/4 of an inch. 8. VMCA speed is: Answer : 112 KIAS. 9. In flight maximum amperage output of a generator is: Answer : 400 amps. 1. Maximum continuous ITT is: Answer : 832 degrees C. -29 degrees C is the minimum takeoff fuel temperature for fuels other than JP-4 3. The cabin altitude/differential pressure gage red arc begins at: Answer : 9.2 PSI. 4. A fan (N1) speed of 101% is permissible for: Answer : One minute 5. The hydraulic pressure gage yellow arc extends from: Answer : 0 to 500 PSI. 6. The AC volts gage green arc extends from: Answer : 110 to 130 volts. 7. Normal oxygen pressure gage reading is from: Answer : 1550 to 1850 PSI. 8. Satisfactory emergency bottle pneumatic pressure would be: Answer : 2950 PSI. 9. The range of 32 to 35 volts on the DC volts gage is delineated by a: Answer : Red arc. 10. The yellow arc on the ammeter denotes the: Answer : Difference between ground and flight limitations. 1. Should the actual OAT be below that shown on a performance chart you should: Answer : Use the lowest temperature shown. 2. Which wing flap position is an option for both takeoff and landing? Answer : 20 degrees. Yes, the aircraft in VS1 configuration could be same configuration as the landing configuration. AFM 5-2 4. ISA temperature at 25,000 feet is: Answer : -36 degrees C. Higher Mach speeds increase the difference between RAT and OAT. AFM 5-11 A 60 degree differential at 28 knots would produce a 25 knot crosswind component. AFM 5-18 7. Which movement of the flaps has the greatest effect on stall speed? Answer : 0 to 8 degrees. 8. At 24,000’ and a weight of 17,000 lbs. the lowspeed buffet boundary buffet onset will occur at: Answer : 200 KIAS. Which weight will allow the maximum forward CG 10,000 lbs What is the generally accepted 1.3 times the stalling speed Which drain valve(s) must be drained prior to eash flight? Fuel Vent 9. On takeoff, fan speed should be monitored up to a speed of: Answer : 80 KIAS. For the purpose of a partial power takeoff assumed temperature is the highest ambient temperature at which the actual takeoff weight is permitted. At a gross weight above 10,200 lbs. the maximum forward CG of 5% MAC decreases. The fuselage fuel storage has the most aft CG location. The minimum flight crew shall consist of the pilot and copilot 2. With a full load of fuel and no passengers or baggage, main gear normal strut extension should be: Answer : 3 1/4" +/- 1/4". If the bottle has been used, the lockwire on the trigger will be broken. To maintain approximately 1.3 times the stalling speed in a 30 degree bank the pilot should fly the following "rule of thumb" airspeeds. Spoilers extended - VREF 50 KIAS. Clean configuration - VREF 40 KIAS. Flaps 8 degrees - VREF 30 KIAS. Flaps 20 degrees - VREF 20 KIAS Flaps 40 degrees - VREF 10 KIAS. 5. At V1 the Captain should take a certain action which is a procedure that is taught in virtually all flight training schools. What is it? Answer : Move the hand from the thrust levers to the control wheel. 6. During the preflight walk around you notice one boundary layer energizer missing from the left wing. You know that: Answer : MMO is now .77 M. 7. When operating in ambient temperatures below -13 degrees F (-25 C), we must observe an operating limitation after the initial start of cold soaked engines. This limitation is: Answer : Engines must be operated at IDLE for at least three minutes for hydraulic fluid warmup. SIGMET All the answers are correct The fuel vent drain must be drained prior to each flight to prevent possible fuel vent clogging by water (ice) in the drain. The aft baggage area has a load limit of 500 pounds Pressurize the hydraulic system. Depress the brake pedals and set the parking brake. Measure the distance between the brake housing and the pressure plate. Which of the following is not hot wired to the left battery? The right stall warning system. 2. How are the aircraft batteries connected? Answer : Always in parallel 3. What is the minimum required voltage to connect either battery to the Battery Charging Bus? Answer : 16 volts. 4. The DC voltmeter on the pilot’s electrical panel reads directly from which bus? Answer : The Battery Charging Bus. 5. Assuming that only the minimum IFR night equipment is operating, what battery life can be expected should the charging system fail? Answer : 30 minutes. 6. What is the approximate life of the emergency battery when in the STANDBY position? (Assume it was fully charged when the normal power was lost.) Answer : 3 hrs. and 45 mins. 7. What is the power unit limit for external engine starting? Answer : 1100 amps. 8. While it is not recommended, the GPU may be connected to the Battery Charging Bus for the batteries to begin charging. Two requirements are placed on the pilot before beginning this procedure. They are: Answer : Battery switch ON; battery voltage 16V minimum. 9. Primary DC electrical power is provided by two engine driven brushless DC generators rated at: Answer : 400 amps each. 10. Which of the following is a generator output limit? Answer : 320 amps maximum for ground operations. 1. During normal operation, both generators operate in parallel through: Answer : The Bendix solid state voltage regulators and generator control boxes. The Generator Bus may receive power from the Battery Charging Bus or from the output of the generator. AC power is provided by two solid state static inverters located in the tail cone. 4. Which of the following is NOT found in the tail cone? Answer : The external ground power receptacle. All electrical followups on the LearJet 35 are dependent upon 115 VAC for their operation. 26V power is furnished for some of the instruments by two step down transformers, located one on each side in the cockpit beneath the circuit breaker panels 7. Only one type of engine instrument is unique to the 26 VAC Bus. That instrument is: Answer : Oil pressure gages. 8. Where are the bus tie circuit breakers placed? Answer : At the extreme forward of the top three rows on the copilot’s side. Basically, all circuit breakers in the top row (both sides) are on the AC Bus. Left and Right AC Buses are connected to each other Through the AC Bus Tie circuit breaker. 11. How long should you wait before attempting RESET if the ESS BUS circuit breaker does not hold? Answer : One minute. The power to the glareshield light panel is supplied from both L and R Essential DC Buses. 2. Which red glareshield light, when flashing, will prevent cancellation of the red MASTER WARN light? Answer : None of these will prevent cancellation. 3. During flight, the amber fuel filter annunciator illuminates. Your first action is to: Answer : Turn ON both standby pumps. 4. The EMER PWR annunciator light will illuminate: Answer : Anytime that the emergency battery is being used and is not receiving a trickle charge. 5. If the cabin altitude aural warning sounds at 10,000 feet cabin altitude, how long can it be silenced? Answer : 30 seconds. 6. Red WING O’HEAT and STAB O’HEAT lights on the glareshield will illuminate when the leading edge structural temperature: Answer : Reaches 215 degrees F. 7. During descent with the windshield heat ON, you notice the red WSHLD OVHT light illuminate. The green WSHLD HT light is also lit. What action is required? Answer : No action is required. The LH stall warning system is hot wired directly to the LH battery and the RH stall warning system is hot wired directly to the RH battery. It is wired directly 1. Each oil temperature indicator on the instrument panel is graduated in increments of: Answer : 10 degrees C. 2. When using the alternate static source, what errors may be expected? Answer : Decreased indication of altitude and Mach/airspeed. 3. What provides lighting control for the flight instruments? Answer : The pilot’s and Copilot’s instrument light rheostat. 4. Fuel flow indication is provided by Answer : A single fuel flow indicator with two pointers. 5. The engine synchronizer system is installed in aircraft SN 35-067 and subsequent and 36-018 and subsequent. The synchronizer control box: Answer : Uses N1 or N2 inputs from both engine fuel computers. 6. Turbine temperature is sensed by: Answer : Ten parallel wired thermocouples located between the HP and LP turbines. 7. The cabin altitude and differential pressure indicators are: Answer : On a single indicator. 8. The alternate gear extension system is monitored by a: Answer : Direct reading EMERGENCY AIR indicator on the center instrument panel. 1. What is the thrust rating of the Garrett TFE-731-2-2B engine at sea level and 72 degrees F? Answer : 3500 pounds. High pressure spool speed is indicated on the engine instruments as turbine speed (N2). 3. When must the engine be removed for inspection? Answer : If fan speed and/or turbine speed exceeds 105% RPM. The accessory drive gearbox provides shaft power for the fuel pump and fuel control, oil pump, starter, generator, and the hydraulic pump. Which of the following statements is correct? All the answers are correct Which of the following is not a function Maintaining low pressure spool speed without droop Engine operation is controlled by a hydromechanical fuel controller, which contains a fuel shutoff section and a fuel metering section. The electronic fuel computer, located in the tail cone, maintains high pressure spool speed without droop, not low pressure spool speed without droop. A fuel/oil cooler and 3 air/oil coolers provide temperature control of the oil. 8. When will the red LOW OIL PRESSURE warning light illuminate? Answer : When either engine oil pressure drops below 24 +/- 1 PSI. 9. Which of these engine instruments is a primary thrust instrument? Answer : The N1 fan turbine speed gage. 10. When should the oil level be checked? Answer : Within 15 minutes after engine shutdown. Likewise, clockwise trim (corresponding to a decrease in specific gravity setting), on the fuel computer, without a change in the fuel specific gravity will result in higher turbine temperatures during start, acceleration, and deceleration. 1. What is the approximate usable fuel capacity of the Lear35? Answer : 6198 lbs. 2. The fuel quantity indicator is located on the: Answer : Fuel control panel. 2 20 oz cans for 300 gallons of fuel. 4. To minimize fuel slosh and adverse effects on the aircraft center of gravity: Answer : Baffles are installed in each tip tank. Four motorized shutoff valves are installed throughout the fue system AVGAS All answers are correct 952 gallons 8. What is the maximum allowable amount of fuel in each tip tank for landing? Answer : 925 pounds. Gravity 600 Lbs per side go-around 11. You have just completed a normal start on the number 2 engine. When moving the START/GEN switch out of the START position, the R FUEL PRESS annunciator illuminates. The probable cause is: Answer : A failed engine driven fuel pump. 12. When the fuel quantity gage indicates 600 pounds or less remaining in either wing tank, fuel starvation and engine flameout may occur. What would cause this? Answer : Prolonged nose up attitude of 10 degrees or more. in the aft fuselage 2 bladder type cells 1. When the Lear is being refueled the fuselage fuel tank is filled by: Answer : The wing tank boost pumps. During fuel transfer, the fuselage fuel transfer pump transfers fuel into both wing tanks. Tip tank fuel must be below 760 pounds each, prior to transferring fuel. Failure to observe this limitation may result in fuel tank rupture and/or structural damage. 4. Placing the fuselage tank FILL/ TRANSFER switch to FILL: Answer : All of the answers are correct. Should the fuselage fuel transfer pump fail, approximately 162 pounds of fuel will remain in the tank and thus be unusable. 6. If the fuselage tank float switch should malfunction, overflow of the fuselage tank will occur. How would this be evident? Answer : Fuel would drip from the wing vent air scoops. Position 6 8. The continued and sustained operation of two items is required for motive flow of the fuel. These two items are the: Answer : Engine driven fuel pump and the jet pump switch ON. A failed/malfunctioning jet pump in the tip tank will be unable to feed tip fuel to the wing. Approximately 1/2 of the tip tank fuel will gravity feed into the wing, however, the remaining fuel will be inaccessible to the engine. 10. Which of the following conditions would require the termination of a crossflow operation? Answer : Inoperative jet pump. 1. The secondary controls of the LearJet utilize what system(s) for their operation and control? Answer : Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated. 2. Balance tabs are provided on each aileron. What purpose do they serve? Answer : Provide aerodynamic assist in direction of aileron motion. 3. What kind of switches are the wheel master buttons? Answer : Momentary. Primary - Mach trim system, secondary - autopilot system. 5. While in cruise flight at .77 M, the Mach trim annunciator light illuminates and the overspeed warning horn sounds. What is an acceptable response? Answer : All of the answers are correct. 6. In flight, actuation of the Mach trim test performs all of the functions except the: Answer : Pitch trim change. Yaw Damper - To prevent the aircraft from dutch rolling Aileron augmentation is provided automatically accomplished by raising the spoiler on the same side with the up going aileron in a 1 to 1 ratio. The opposite spoiler remains retracted. The system is automatically ARMED whenever the spoiler switch is in the RETRACT position and the flap setting is greater than 25 degrees. RETRACT or EXTEND cycle of 5 - 7 seconds. Normal spoiler operation always preempts spoileron system operation. In flight, do not extend the spoilers and flaps at the same time as structural damage to the upper flap skin may result. Power is removed from the control valve, the servo valves, If not within 6 degrees symmetry the AUG AIL glareshield light illuminates and power is removed from the control valve, the servo valves, and the restrictor bypass valve. The spoilerons require both 115 VAC and 28 VDC for their operation. The spoilers require only 28 VDC for their operation. Answer: Loss of 115 VAC disables the spoilerons; loss of 28 VDC disables the spoilers When the flap switch is returned to the center NEUTRAL position, the flap solenoid is deenergized and the flap control valve returns to NEUTRAL. Damage to the flaps due to excessive airspeed with the flaps down is: Prevented by a relief valve which causes flap retraction The relief valve, set at 1650 PSI, prevents damage to the flaps due to excessive airspeed with the flaps down. System pressure in excess of 1650 PSI, due to air loads, is relieved to return, causing the flaps to retract. 5. The stall warning system provides warning of an impending stall by a: Answer : All of the answers are correct. During flight the R STALL illuminates: Check if the yaw damper is selected - if not, engage the primary yaw damper. Stick pusher system: MMO Only Three circuit breakers, under the pilot's seat, control AFCS lighting. When should the AFCS not be engaged? All the answers are correct. What Limitation Vertical speed must be stabilized for approximately 3 to 5 seconds before engagement is maintained within autopilot limits. Before engaging vertical speed, set up and maintain the desired rate long enough for the rate sensor lag to diminish. The Aeronca thrust reverser system, as installed on the LearJet, uses bleed air from the high pressure port from each engine for actuation and is electrically controlled through sequence switches. A throttle control interlock system is incorporated on the Aeronca thrust reverser system to Prevent the application of reverse thrust above approximately 45% N1 RPM until both reversers are fully deployed. When the mechanical latch is released at the IDLE position, the following automatic sequence is initiated: Power is advanced to 50 - 60% N1 and reverser control relay is powered. 4. What will placing the NORM/EMER STOW switch to the EMER STOW position accomplish? Answer : All switches and actuators are commanded to the STOW position. 5. The thrust reversers must not be returned to the STOW position until engine RPM has reduced to approximately REVERSE IDLE speed because: Answer : This will prevent forward thrust when the reversers are stowed. 6. Should a thrust reverser deploy in flight, what is the maximum airspeed below which a restow may be attempted? Answer : 200 knots. The TR 4000 thrust reverser system consists of: The thrust reversers are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated. Hydraulic pressure for the thrust reversers is supplied by the aircraft's main hydraulic system. The TR 4000 thrust reverser is self- monitoring. Therefore the pilot must only ensure that the arming switches are in the ARMED position and that the squat switch has energized to the GROUND mode. With the TR 400 squat switch in the GROUND mode and the arming A preflight check of the T/R system is provided to ensure that the safe/warn system is functioning. With this done the arming switches are placed in the OFF position & the throttles should return to the IDLE position & buckets should STOW. This auto throttle function is designed to reduce engine RPM whenever a deploy cycle is initiated. During the preflight check of the T/R system, Piggy back throttles move to IDLE and the buckets STOW Two to three seconds elapse before the reversers deploy. This is normal. The restow envelope of the TR 4000 system extends to 14,000 feet and 170 knots. The thrust reversers may be used in any combination of one or two engines. The failed engine's throttle must be placed in the FLIGHT IDLE position and its respective arm switch ARMED before attempting a deploy. In this case the bucket will deploy,providing drag, but REVERSE power will not be available. Each thrust reverser has four latches. There are two latches per side. Failure of any one latch causes the DEPLOY light to flash. A preflight check of the T/R system With this done the arming switches are placed in the OFF position & the throttles should return to the IDLE position & buckets should STOW. This auto throttle function is designed to reduce engine RPM whenever a deploy cycle is initiated. 1. What systems receive power for operation from the hydraulic system? Answer : Landing gear, brakes, flaps, and spoilers. The hydraulic system uses MIL-H-5606 (red) hydraulic fluid The reservoir sight glass should be covered with fluid. 4. Where is the cockpit hydraulic pressure gage located? Answer : The center instrument panel. The accumulator is a cylindrical, piston type unit precharged to 850 PSI with dry air or nitrogen. The ultimate pressure relief valve prevents damage to the system due to excessive pressure in excess of 1700 PSI. Prior to servicing the hydraulic reservoir, assure the hydraulic pressure is zero. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is provided should a loss of normal hydraulic pressure be encountered. 9. The aircraft hydraulic systems which are capable of operating with the use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump are: Answer : Landing gear, brakes, and flaps. 10. What is the auxiliary hydraulic pump duty cycle? Answer : 3 minutes ON, then 20 minutes OFF. In flight, the auxiliary hydraulic pump is normally used only for emergency flap operation. An air bottle system is provided for emergency brakes and an alternate means of gear extension. The bottom .4 gallons is available only to the auxiliary hydraulic pump. 3. Should a failure of both the normal and auxiliary hydraulic systems occur, an emergency backup system is provided. What type of system is this? Answer : Pneumatic. During alternate gear extension Pneumatically When using the emergency When emergency gear extension is due to hydraulic system failure Which set of brake pedals are used in conjunction with the parking brake? Pilots or copilots pedals When experiencing a hydraulic system failure indicated by a loss of hydraulic system pressure, flaps may be inoperable spoilers are inoperable, & anti-skid is not available. In such instances, landing field length should be increased 100% over the actual landing field length for anti-skid ON. The gear warning horn will sound when the flaps are down more than 25 degrees and landing gear is not down. A restrictor in the gear UP return line: Back pressure, used for main wheel snubbing during retraction, is created by a restrictor in the gear UP return line. Upon gear extension you notice that... Check that the landing light associated with that gear will illuminate. Plan to extend the landing gear using the emergency extension system. Whatever useful pressure that may be obtained with the use of the aux hydraulic pump must be saved for flap extension. The flap system has no emergency extension system. 9. The air system to the landing gear and inboard main gear doors is operated by the emergency gear extension handle. What is unusual about this handle? Answer : It is recessed into the pedestal to prevent inadvertent actuation. 10. After the landing gear is extended pneumatically by the air bottle system, how many lights should be illuminated? Answer : 3 green lights and 2 main gear red lights on. 1. During alternate gear extension, how is the uplatch cylinder actuated to disengage the nose gear? Answer : Pneumatically. Whenever an emergency gear extension is required due to a hydraulic system failure, the possibility of line leakage exists Therefore, once the gear is down and locked the emergency gear extension handle must be returned to the UP position. Parking brake Pilot's or copilot's pedals 4. The anti-skid system consists of two dual servo control valves, a wheel speed transducer in each main wheel, an anti-skid control box, a control switch, and: Answer : Four indicator lights. What component has been incorporated A timer Upon landing, either squat switch initiates a 1 to 2 second timer for wheel spinup. This prevents inadvertent touchdown with the brakes applied. 6. Which of the following conditions will render the anti-skid inoperable? Answer : Use of the emergency brake system. 7. Nose wheel steering is engaged: Answer : While either wheel master button is held depressed or steer lock is engaged. The variable nose wheel steering system utilizes the LH inboard Determination of aircraft speed The system utilizes the LH inboard and RH inboard and outboard anti-skid generators for the determination of aircraft speed. 9. What is the maximum nose wheel steering speed? Answer : 45 knots. What precaution must be observed The nose wheel steering circuit breaker must be pulled When the aircraft is towed with the power ON, the 28V nose steer circuit breaker should be pulled to prevent damage to the nose wheel steering system. The illumination of any anti-skid light indicates a malfunction of the anti-skid system for that wheel. Due to the possibility of up to a 45 degree displacement of the nose wheel, at any speed, the nose wheel steering should not be engaged until the aircraft has slowed to 10 knots or less. Upon extension of the landing gear during approach Do not engage nosewheel steering until below 10 knots Each squat switch is wired to what components? the anti-skid system, gear control valve, and squat switch relay box. In addition, the left and right main gear squat switches are wired in parallel with each other. 3/4 inch of standing water or slush is the limiting factor for ground operations. Engine bleed air is routed to the wing and horizontal stabilizer leading edges to prevent ice accumulation. 3. Q: When should wing anti-ice be turned on? Answer: Before entering icing conditions. During flight in icing conditions, with all anti-ice systems ON, The windshield heat system is malfunctioning and/or failed. If the windshield anti-ice system is operating, what should be monitored The copilot's ice detect light The left ice detect light illuminates a heated portion of the pilot's windshield. The right ice detect light illuminates an unheated portion of the copilot's windshield. The light on the pilot's side is located in an area cleared by defog airflow and the light on the copilot's side is located outside the de-ice area. Therefore, if the windshield anti-ice system is operating, the copilot's ice detect light should be monitored for evidence of ice formation. Methyl alcohol is used for radome anti-icing and as a backup for bleed air windshield anti-icing. The system is controlled by the WSHLD/RADOME- RADOME-OFF switch. The L & R pitot heat circuit breakers protect their respective side pitot tube and integral static port. The wing anti-ice pressure regulator fails to the OFF position. Windshield ice detect lights receive power Directly from the batteries. Which of the following statements is NOT correct it is completely dependent on the bleed air pressurization system The additional freon system is a refrigeration system used for cooling or dehumidification and is completely independent of the bleed air pressurization system. The freon system can be used up to FL 350 to cool and dehumidify cabin air. The compressor motor receives cooling air from the tail cone ventilation air scoop located on the left side of the fuselage. The refrigeration system will disengage during engine start. 5. What would be the probable result if you were to turn ON the cooling system after landing with the anti-skid system in operation? Answer : The initial voltage drop would cause the anti-skid system to dump pressure for 2 - 3 seconds. There is no altitude limit for use of auxiliary cabin heat. 7. To preheat the cabin before your passengers arrive, a GPU is hooked up, the baggage diverter door is closed, & V/meters indicate proper voltage. Upon selecting the AUX HT to HIGH, you sense that the cabin fan is not ON. Why? Answer : This is normal. 8. Cabin pressurization is provided by conditioned air entering the cabin through the air distribution ducts and controlled by: Answer : Modulating the amount of air exhausted from the cabin. 9. How is normal pressurization controlled on the LearJet? Answer : With the cabin pressurization controller - rate selector. With the aircraft sitting statically on the ground, do not perform extended engine operation above IDLE with cab air switch ON.There is no ram airflow through the heat exchanger and possible damage to air conditioning components may occur. 11. How is cabin temperature regulated on the LearJet? Answer : By controlling the temperature of pressurization bleed air that enters the cabin. Interior defogging is accomplished by directing conditioned air over the interior surface of the windshield. 1. A pressure gage mounted on each fire extinguishing container indicates the charge of the container, which is: Answer : 600 PSI at 70 degrees F. These loops provide overtemp information from the pylon area accessory section, and hot section. 3. By pulling the fire T-handle, power is supplied to the ARM buttons. What else is accomplished by pulling the fire T-handle? Answer : Closes the bleed air shutoff valve, hydraulic supply valve, and fuel shutoff valve. 4. What is the correct pressure for the oxygen supply bottle? Answer : 1850 PSI. 5. Under which of the following conditions should oxygen not be used? Answer : When using chapstick or wearing lipstick. 6. The passenger oxygen masks will automatically fall from the cabin mask containers if the cabin altitude reaches: Answer : 14,000 feet. 7. When will automatic presentation of passenger masks at 14,000 feet cabin altitude NOT occur? Answer : Without 28V DC. Should the oxygen cylinder contents be discharged overboard when the cylinder pressure has reached 2700 to 3000 PSI, the green overboard discharge indicator on the outside surface of the aircraft near the storage cylinder will be ruptured or missing. 33,000 feet 100% Oxygen to 0% cabin air.