What is followed if the information in the OM conflicts with or is less restrictive than the provisions of the FARs?  
 
  FARs take precedence.  
  The procedure that the aircraft manufacturer calls for takes precedence.  
     This manual has been prepared in accordance with FAR Part 135. The procedures and policies contained herein supplement the regulations and are considered essential to good operating practices and safety. The contents, Policy and Procedures of the manual shall not be construed to be contrary to any FAR or any applicable State or foreign regulation, safe operating practice and operations specifications. 
Specifically those requirements contained in CFR 14 Parts 119 and 135 of the FARs:

Certification and Operations Specifications for Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators of Large Aircraft. When the information contained in this OM conflicts with or is less restrictive than the provisions of the FARs, the FARs shall have precedence. When information contained herein conflict with or is less restrictive than the aircraft’s FAA approved minimum equipment list [MEL], the MEL shall have precedence.

Ops Manual 1.1.1

 

   A copy of this manual is required to be carried on all company aircraft while conducting FAR 135 operations. 
The Manager of Technical Publications[MTP] will maintain a master copy of the OM in the Technical Publications department located at the FSG principle base of operations located at Stratford, CT.

FSG personnel will only use authorized company manuals in the performance of their duties and responsibilities. FSG initial training will include a discussion on the prohibition of using other manuals.

Pen and ink changes to the FSG manuals are prohibited.

Ops Manual 1.1.1

 

The Director of Operations is responsible for the control and the quality of the Operations Manual. Any questions regarding the OM shall be directed to the DO. 
The Manager of Technical Publications is responsible for the manual revision process. Each assigned manual holder is responsible for inserting or removing the revised material to each manual.

Ops Manual 2.1.1



Who shall be the point of contact to submit proposed modifications to the Flight Services Group policies and procedures?  
 
  Manager of Technical Publications.  
 
The DO has the authority to establish and modify the policies and procedures for revising, distributing and implementing changes to the OM. The Manager of Technical Publications shall be the point of contact to submit a proposed modification to Flight Services Group operations policies and procedures. There will be no delegation of authority to modify these policies and procedures. 
Ops Manual 3.1.1

 

Changes to this manual will be furnished by:  
  Manager of Technical Publications.  
     Copies of this manual, appropriate portions of it, and changes and additions are furnished to Flight Services Group management, pilots, maintenance, and ground operations personnel by the Manager of Technical Publications. A copy is also furnished to the local FAA Flight Standards Office. A copy of the manual is placed in each company aircraft by the assigned Maintenance Coordinator and must be carried on each flight. It will be made available to any person who performs maintenance on the aircraft. At least one complete copy of this manual will be retained by the DO at the Flight Services Group principle base of operations located at Stratford, Connecticut. 
A copy of this manual or appropriate portions thereof are furnished to the DO, the CP, the DM, Director of Safety and Chief Inspector.

Ops Manual 4.1.1
 

Who is responsible in ensuring that a manual is kept current in each revised version?  
  Each manual holder.  
     When a revision has been accomplished, the holder shall record the change on the Record of Revision Page. The holder shall sign and date the bottom of the Transmittal Form and return it to the Manager of Technical Publications within 10 days of receipt of the revision. The signature on the bottom of the Transmittal [Form CM-04] will be used as verification of manual revision and record of revision update. The completed letter of transmittal will be kept in the operations transmittal book indicating the revision and status of each manual issued. 
Each manual holder is responsible to ensure that all manuals issued to him are maintained to the current revision. Missing pages, revisions or bulletins may be requested from the Manager of Technical Publications. Pen and ink changes to any manual are prohibited.

Ops Manual 4.2.1

 

Bulletins not incorporated in the appropriate manual will expire within:  
 
  6 months of the date of issue.  
     Bulletins contain policy, procedures or other company information. 
Bulletins are colored yellow with pages numbered consecutively by year and number [e.g. Operations Bulletin 03-01, 03-02, etc.] Bulletins are placed in the appropriate manual behind the Record of Bulletins sheet in front of each manual. Bulletins remain in effect until incorporated into the appropriate manual or are rescinded, or reach their expiration date. Bulletins not incorporated in the appropriate manual within 6 months of the date of issue, expire.

Ops Manual 4.3.2

 
  Who of the following are responsible for assuring that all flight operations are conducted in compliance with FARs and Company Policies and Procedures?  
  PIC.  
     The DO or his designee or the PIC will assure all flight operations will be conducted in compliance with FARs and Policies and Procedures stated in this manual. Therefore, it is mandatory that all personnel comply with the policies and procedures contained herein. This manual does not take precedence over FARs, SFAR, DOT, ICAO, OM, MEL or Manufacturer’s publications in case of conflicting information. 
Ops Manual 4.4

 

Deviations from the policies and procedures are authorized for flightcrew.  
False.  
No deviations from the policies and procedures set forth in this manual are authorized. Recommendations to change policies and procedures contained in this manual are encouraged and should be directed to the Manager of Technical Publications. In no way should a policy or procedure be construed to compromise safety. The Manager of Technical Publications will have the authority and be responsible for assuring that manuals assigned to aircraft operated under FAR 135 are current and are revised. 
Ops Manual 4.5.1

 
The DO will have the Technical Publications Process audited:  
  Annually.  
     Annually, the DO will designate and authorize an auditor to accomplish an evaluation of the Technical Publications Program process. 
The Auditor shall examine the following items relating to the Technical Publications Program:

Audit the Master Publication List to determine the current status of all Corporate Manuals. 
The Auditor will document any discrepancies found during the audit and report in writing said discrepancies to the DO.

The results of the audit and any corrective action are to be kept on file by the DO for 1 year.

Ops Manual 6.1.1

 
Any changes made to procedures will be notified to affected personnel via:  
  Bulletin.  
     The DO is responsible for the control and management of the personnel and the quality of the OM administrative procedures. Any questions regarding this section will be directed to the DO. 
The DO has the responsibility to assess the impacts of changing the procedures in this section before approving any revisions. He shall notify all affected personnel through Bulletin or Manual Revision should there be any changes.

Before initiating changes in procedures for required management personnel, the DO shall assess through verbal communications with those personnel, any impact the proposed change may have in the conduct of their duties.

The DO has the authority to implement changes to Section 2 of the OM. The Manager of Technical Publications [MTP] is the point of contact to submit proposed modifications to Flight Service Group’s Operations policies.

Ops Manual 2.1.1 & 3.1.1

 
FSG will not conduct Part 135 on demand operations unless those operations have been conducted within the previous:  
  90 consecutive calendar days.  
     The DO will ensure that FSG will not conduct Part 135 on demand Operations or exercise the authority in the FSG Ops Specs, unless FSG has conducted that kind of operation within 90 consecutive calendar days. If FSG does not conduct a kind of operation for which it is authorized in its ops specs within the specified 90 calendar days, the DO will ensure that FSG shall not conduct such a kind of operation unless: 
a) FSG shall advise the Administrator at least 5 consecutive calendar days before the resumption of that kind of operation.

b) FSG will make itself available and accessible during the 5 consecutive calendar day period in the event that the FAA decides to conduct a full inspection reexamination to determine whether the certificate holder remains properly and adequately equipped and able to conduct a safe operation.

Ops Manual 4.2.1

 
Any employee of FSG or the FAA may contact management at their homes after hours concerning any item of operational concern.  
  True.  
     Any employee of FSG, or the FAA may contact them at their homes after hours concerning any item of operational concern. Should there be any change to the management personnel required the DO will notify the Windsor Locks Flight Standards District Office [FSDO] within 10 days of said management change or vacancy and will make the appropriate modifications to any applicable manuals to reflect said change at the earliest possible date. The DO will ensure that all of the required management personnel as defined by FAR 119 will be on staff and fully qualified, knowledgeable and experienced. Those personnel will be full time employees of FSG. The FAA Administrator must approve any deviations in the FAR 119 requirements for management personnel. 
Ops Manual 4.4.1

  In addition to the PIC, who shares the responsibility of operational control of a given flight?  
  Director of Operations.  
     The DO and PIC are jointly responsible for operational control of a given flight. The DO may delegate his authority to other qualified personnel of the company. However, upon delegation, he maintains the responsibility. The DO will be in operational control until he designates otherwise. Any change in operational control will be followed up with written notification and confirmation to the party to which operational control is delegated and to the 5 FAR 119 required managers of FSG as listed in Section 2 of this manual. 
This delegation notification will also be made in writing by the DO in the Duty Roster. The Duty Roster is published weekly by the DO. The DO is directly responsible for the quality of the operational control process.

In accordance with FAR 135 the DO of FSG who shares joint operational control with the PIC of a given flight is Thomas H. Miller, DO.

Ops Manual 4.4.2

  
The Director of Safety reports directly to:  
  Board of Directors.  
     The Director of Safety reports directly to the Board of Directors and is independent of other FSG departments. He is charged with developing the safety program, evaluating results and providing advice and guidance on the implementation of the Safety Program. 
The Director of Safety has the authority to make recommendations with regard to the safety attributes over all FSG activities.

The Director of Safety has the authority to communicate and coordinate with all FSG departments. Additionally, he shall have access to all FSG departments without restriction in the course of fulfilling his duties.

Ops Manual 5.2.3


Who is responsible for the implementation and supervision of the crewmember training program?  
  Director of Operations.  
     The DO is responsible for the implementation and supervision of the crewmember-training program. 
The DO shall compile and distribute the weekly Duty Roster that shows delegation of authority for required management personnel.

The DO is responsible for the MEL/CDL manual that is developed by the DM. The DO is the ‘owner’ of the MEL/CDL manual and is responsible for any modification to the MEL/CDL manual and/or program.

Ops Manual 5.2.5

  

Which of these duties will be carried out by the Operations Manager?  
All of the answers are correct.  
The Operations Manager reports to the Director of Operations and is responsible for managing the Operations Department in a manner that encourages the safe, legal, and efficient utilization of FSG aircraft and crews. 

The Operations Manager has the authority to carry out the wishes of the Director of Operations or any person that has operational control as described in the succession procedures outlined in this manual.

The OM will:
a) Arrange commercial and corporate flights in a cost efficient manner.
b) Initiate security checks when appropriate.
c) Ensure that all standards, procedures and regs according to AFM.
d) Create and improve existing systems to further simplify and increase the efficiency of the Ops functions.
e) Ensure currency of the Flight Following library.
f) Be the point of contact for the Crews and Passengers before, during and after the flights. 

Ops Manual 5.2.6
 
Flight locating procedures will begin when the flight has not reported in within how long of the ETA?  
  15 minutes.  
     Flight Followers will: 
a) Collect and disseminate weather and aeronautical information to the PIC.
b) Prepare Flight Operations paperwork.
c) Maintain a written log of all pertinent events occurring on his shift.
d) Flight Follow all FSG flights by tracking the OUT/OFF and ON/IN times. If a flight has not reported these times within 30 minutes of the Estimated Time of Departure [ETD] or the Estimated Time of Arrival [ETA], the Flight Follower must conduct flight locating procedures until the status of the flight is obtained.
e) Ensure all flights are operated safely and in compliance with the FARs, OM, Noise Abatement Regs, and other Foreign and company policy directives.
f) Advise the appropriate personnel of potential or actual delays beyond 15 minutes in length as soon as they are identified, and what action has been taken, or is recommended to correct the problem.
g) Ensure that each flight has a legal crew available to complete all flight ops.
h) Ensure that all ground handling, deicing, fuel, landing/departure slots, and landing/over-flight permits are in order before releasing a flight.
i) Coordinate with Maintenance to ensure the aircraft status will permit the intended operation to be conducted safely and in accordance with applicable MEL/CDL limitations/restrictions at the scheduled departure time.
j) Comply with all applicable federal and state health and safety regulations.
k) Perform other related duties as requested by the Ops Manager or the DO.

Ops Manual 5.2.7

 
Who supervises the training of all flight crewmembers?  
 
  Chief Pilot.  
     The CP is responsible to the DO and is charged with the direct supervision of pilots. The major purpose of the CP is to ensure a safe, productive and efficient flight operation through the judicious use of personnel, equipment and supplies. 
The CP has the authority of:

Perform the functions authorized in his or her training records. 
Determine the need for and request authorization for the hiring of flight personnel. 
Supervise all training of flight crewmembers. 
Sign for and accept Flight Services Group Operations Specifications. 
Accept and exercise operational control of all activities when called for by the succession of operational control procedures as outlined in this manual. 
Ops Manual 5.2.8

 

The Check Airman is responsible to:  
  Director of Training.  
     The Instructor Pilot/Check Airman is responsible to the Director of Training. He is charged with administering the FSG standardization program and direct supervision of pilots undergoing training. 
The major purpose of the Instructor/Check Airman is to ensure a safe, productive and efficient flight performance of all flight crewmembers operating FSG aircraft.

They have the authority to:

a) Conduct flight and ground training of flight crewmembers, appropriate to the qualifications of the instructor.
b) Discontinue training when in the opinion of the instructor, equipment, facilities, or flight personnel fail to meet the prerequisites for training:

Simulator fails to perform to certification standards. 
Training aids or equipment are inoperative or do not meet the requirements specified in the training program. 
Facilities do not have adequate lighting, furnishings, climate control, noise suppression, or for any reason in the opinion of the instructor that training would be compromised. 
c) Administer and supervise academic testing of flight crewmembers.
d) Annotate all training in the airman’s training records.
e) Recommend progress evaluations of crewmembers based on performance.

Ops Manual 5.2.9

 
A pilot who is not working as a PIC, is directly responsible to:  
  Chief Pilot.  
     The DO, or his representative, will designate one of the pilots of an aircraft that is to be operated, to be the PIC for each flight or series of flights. The PIC of the aircraft is also referred to as the CAPTAIN. 
RESPONSIBILITY: The aircraft PIC is directly responsible to the DO or his designee while performing the duties of the PIC. When not performing said duties he is responsible to the CP.

AUTHORITY: The PIC has the full authority to make any and all decisions with regard to the operation or safety of the flight he is commanding. Each PIC of an aircraft is, during flight time, in command of the aircraft and crew and is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and aircraft. The PIC has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not he holds valid certificates authorizing him to perform the duties of those crewmembers.

Ops Manual 5.2.10


Which of these are NOT a responsibility of the PIC?  
 
  Supervision of all flight crewmembers.  
 
DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE PIC: 
Safe operation of the aircraft and safety of its occupants and cargo during flight time. 
Give all commands he deems necessary for the purpose of securing the safety of the airplane and of persons or property carried therein, and all persons carried in the airplane shall obey such commands. 
Perform Customer Service duties at the passenger pick up point. 
Conduct flights in accordance with the relevant Air Navigation Regulations, Order and Schedules (as may from time to time be amended), within the terms of the company’s Air Carrier Certificate with due regard to flight safety. 
Maintain familiarity with such provisions of the Company Operations and Maintenance Manual as are necessary to fulfill his function. 
Maintain familiarity with relevant National and International Air legislation and agreed aviation practices and procedures. 
Disembark any person, or any part of the cargo, which in his opinion, may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the airplane or its occupants. 
Deny carriage of any person who appears to be intoxicated or under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the airplane or its occupants is likely to be endangered. 
Refuse transportation of in-admissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if their carriage poses any risk to the safety of the airplane or its occupants. 
Ensure that all passengers are briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of relevant safety and emergency equipment. 
Ops Manual 5.2.10

In the absence of a qualified Company Maintenance Representative, the PIC will oversee the refueling operations, paying close attention to:  
 
  Correct grade and amount of fuel.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Fuel water checks.  
 
  Fire safety precautions.  
     DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE PIC: 
1) Ensure that all operational procedures and checklists are complied with, in accordance with the Operations and Flight Manuals, and that a current Aircraft Flight Manual is on board the aircraft that he is to command.
2) Ensure that the weather forecast and reports for the proposed operating area and flight duration indicate that the flight may be conducted without infringing company operating minima.
3) Decide whether or not to accept an airplane with un-serviceability allowed by the CDL or MEL.
4) Take all reasonable steps to ensure the airplane, and any required equipment is serviceable.
5) In the absence of a qualified Company Maintenance Representative, ensure that airplane refueling is supervised with particular attention being paid to:

a) The correct grade and amount of fuel.
b) Fuel water checks.
c) Fire safety precautions.
d) Checking filler caps for security and correct replacement after refueling.

6) Take all reasonable steps to ensure that the airplane weight and balance is within the calculated limits for the operating conditions.
7) Confirm that the airplane’s performance will enable it to safely complete the proposed flight.
8) Not permit any crewmember to perform any activity during takeoff, initial climb, final approach and landing except those duties required for the safe operation of the airplane.
9) Take reasonable steps to ensure that before takeoff and before landing the flight crew and Flight Attendants are properly secured in their allocated seats.

NOTE: Required Flight Attendant, if applicable, should be properly secured in their allocated seats during taxi except for the performance of essential safety related duties.

Ops Manual 5.2.10

 
The PIC must be qualified in the aircraft in which he is to serve and also hold:  
A current FAA Airline Transport Pilots license.  
The PIC will be highly knowledgeable about the policies and procedures outlined in the Flight Services Group Operations and Maintenance Manuals, Ops Specs, AFM and other related documents pertinent to his duties. 
Know the provisions and be highly knowledgeable of FAR 1, 91, 135 and other applicable Federal Aviation Regulations necessary for the performance of his or her duties as PIC.

Hold a current FAA Airline Transport Pilots License, if required by regulation and be fully qualified in the aircraft that he operates by FSG as well as comply with any and all requirements of the Federal Aviation Regulations that apply to the qualifications of PIC.

Ops Manual 5.2.10


   
The SIC is responsible to the PIC or:  
 
  Chief Pilot.  
 
To act as a SIC or Co-pilot of an aircraft, the SIC must be assigned and qualified to act as a required crewmember on the specific aircraft. In the event of the incapacitation of the PIC, the SIC will assume command of the aircraft. 
RESPONSIBILITY: The SIC is responsible to the PIC to assist in the safe and efficient conduct of the flight. He is also referred to as the SIC or First Officer. The SIC’s Departmental Head, to whom he is responsible when not reporting directly to a PIC, is the Chief Pilot.

Ops Manual 5.2.11


The SIC will immediately and at any time, inform the PIC if he believes the aircraft is being handled improperly.  
  
  True.  
     
     DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE SIC: 
1) Maintain familiarity with relevant US and International air legislation and agreed aviation practices and procedures.

2) Maintain familiarity with such provisions of the Company Ops Manual as are necessary to fulfill his function.

3) Assist the PIC as requested, concerning administrative duties in relation to the flight and support the PIC in the maintenance of a proper standard of crew discipline, conduct and personal appearance.

4) Perform Customer Service duties at the passenger pick-up point, to include Ground Security Coordinator’s responsibilities.

5) He must be knowledgeable of the Ops Manual, FAA Regs, Ops Specs, flight manuals, and other instructions pertinent to his duties.

6) Will immediately inform the PIC and at any time, should he believe the aircraft is being handled improperly.

7) Carry out such duties concerning the flight, in accordance with Company Standard Operating procedures, including procedures, limitations and performance relating to the specific a/c type, as are allocated to him by the PIC.

8) Maintain a high personal standard of discipline, conduct and appearance as a representative the Company and to support the PIC, by active example, in the development and maintenance of a high standard of professional expertise and morale amongst the crew.


Ops Manual 5.2.11


For BBJ operations, who is responsible for ensuring that Flight Attendants are trained and examined?  
  Cabin Services Manager.  
     The Cabin Services Manager reports to the DO. He has the authority to ensure that all Flight Attendants are trained and examined in accordance with the FSG Operations, Flight Attendant Manual and Training Manual. 
The Cabin Services Manager:

Must be highly knowledgeable about the policies and procedures outlined in the FSG Ops Manual and other related documents pertinent to his duties. 
Must know the provisions and be highly knowledgeable of FAR 1, 91, 135 and other applicable FARs necessary for the performance of his duties. 
Must be qualified in an aircraft operated by FSG as well as comply with any and all requirements of the FARs that apply to the qualifications of Flight Attendant. 
May delegate functions to other personnel, but retains responsibility. 
Ops Manual 5.2.12


Who is the Check Flight Attendant responsible to?  
  Director of Training.  
     The Check Flight Attendant is responsible to the Director of Training and has authority to: 
Conduct flight and ground training of flight attendants appropriate to the qualifications of the check flight attendant. 
Discontinue training when in the opinion of the check flight attendant, equipment, facilities, or flight personnel fail to meet the prerequisites of training. 
Training aids or equipment are inoperative or do not meet the requirements specified in the training program. 
Facilities do not have adequate lighting, furnishings, climate control, noise suppression, or for any reason in the opinion of the instructor that training would be compromised. 
Administer and supervise testing of flight attendants. 
Annotate all training in the flight attendant training records. 
Recommend progress evaluations of a flight attendant based on poor performance. 
Ops Manual 5.2.13


On each flight, the Flight Attendants will report to:  
  In-Flight Director.  
     The Inflight Director [IFD] reports directly to the PIC [In-flight], and is responsible for managing the aircraft cabin during flight. The In-flight Director reports to the Cabin & Customer Service Manager or designee [Ground]. When required, an IFD will be assigned on FAR 135 BBJ flights, and will be responsible for all safety matters in the cabin under the authority of the PIC. The IFD is responsible to the PIC for conduct and coordination of cabin safety and emergency procedures. 
All Flight Attendants on the flight report directly to the In-Flight Director. The IFD will ensure that all required duties and responsibilities are adhered to as specified in the OM.

The IFD will:

Be knowledgeable about the policies and procedures outlined in the FSG Flight Attendant Manual and other related documents pertinent to his duties. 
Know the provisions and be knowledgeable of FAR 135 and other applicable FARs necessary for the performance of his duties as a Flight Attendant. 
Be qualified in an aircraft operated by FSG as well as comply with any and all requirements of the FARs that apply to the qualifications of Flight Attendant. 
Attend and satisfactorily complete all required training. 
Ops Manual 5.2.14

     

The Director of Training must be highly knowledgeable of which of these FARs?  
 
  Part 135.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Part 91.  
 
  Part 1.  
     The Director of Training reports to the DO. The Director of Training is responsible to ensure the compliance of the Training Department with the procedures contained in the FAA approved Training Program. He is responsible to ensure the quality of management of the Pilot, Check Airman/Flight Instructor, Flight Attendant, and Flight Follower training and qualifications contained in the Training Program. 
The Director of Training has the authority to implement the planning and scheduling of personnel for training. His duties and responsibilities are:

Company Training Policy. 
Training Administration. 
General supervision of all training and testing, to comply with FAA requirements. 
Ensure that check airman, check flight attendant and instructors understand their responsibilities to promote safe aircraft operating procedures. 
Maintenance of pilot training records in conjunction with pilot licensing requirements. 
Recommendation of training staff appointments in addition to their supervision and development. 
The Director of Training must be highly knowledgeable about policies and procedures outlined in the FSG Operations, Flight Attendant and Maintenance Manuals, Ops Specs, other related documents pertinent to his duties, and the provisions of FAR 1, 91, 135 and other applicable FARs necessary for the performance of his or her duties as Director of Training. He must also hold at least a current FAA Commercial Airman’s Certificate.

Ops Manual 5.2.17

 

Who is charged with the obligation to develop and maintain a quality control system that will comply with all applicable FARs?  
  Chief Inspector.  
     The Chief Inspector is responsible to the DM. He is charged with the obligation to develop and maintain a quality control system that will comply with all applicable FARs. The Chief Inspector will also provide and keep current an inspection system that will produce satisfactory quality control. 
The Chief Inspector has the authority to:

Approve aircraft for return to service after any maintenance. 
Countermand any decision arrived at by an inspector or maintenance personnel whether designated RII or not. 
Recommend appropriately trained and qualified personnel to perform RII inspections. 
Perform required inspections on airframe, engines, appliances and emergency equipment. 
The Chief Inspector must know the policies and procedures outlined in the FSG Ops and Maintenance Manuals and be familiar with appropriate parts of applicable FARs. In addition, he must meet the requirements of FAR 119.

Ops Manual 5.2.22


Flight personnel observing any deviation with regulations will immediately report it to:  
  Director of Operations.  
In order to make FSG ops safe, efficient and economical, it is expected that all flight personnel will completely comply with all regulations, instructions and orders issued for the various crew duties as well as comply with any and all FSG manuals and FAA issued Ops Specs and Regs. 
Flight personnel observing any deviation on departure with the above, will immediately report the event to the DO.

All Flight personnel shall:

1) Keep conversant with Company and FAA Regs and Instructions which are issued in the different applicable Company Manuals and Notices.

2) Be familiar with the duties to be performed on the respective types of aircraft.

3) Be familiar with the handling of the Aircraft systems for normal and emergency operation.

4) Be familiar with emergency equipment and procedures.

Ops Manual 5.3.4 & 5.3.5



The PIC is the only flight crewmember authorized to disable the cockpit voice recorder.  
  False.  
The public’s confidence in an operator is highly dependent on its impression of the flight personnel’s conduct. Therefore, flight personnel should always remember that they are the objects of much public interest and should act in a disciplined and correct manner at all times. 
The PIC is responsible to oversee the behaviour of his crew. Violations will be reported to the DO. No flight crewmember will disable any cockpit voice recorder or aircraft flight data recorder. These devices must be operated continuously from the moment the crew begins their first checklist prior to departure until the crew has completed their final checklist at their destination. No flight crewmember will disable any ground proximity warning system except in compliance with an approved AFM procedure.

A clean and smart appearance must always be carefully maintained. Special attention should be given to uniforms and, personal appearance while traveling on Company duty.

Flight personnel must normally wear the complete uniform when performing all duty flights and on other special duties, when specifically called for. If the temperature is high and local customs permit, the PIC may allow the jacket to be taken off during duty time, but a proper appearance is still required. Any questions regarding this policy should be directed to the CP.

Ops Manual 5.3.7


The "Total Crew Concept" includes:  
Every member of the flight crew.  
FSG Operations department in accordance with the provisions of CFR 14 Parts 135 as applicable will determine the organization and assignment of flight crews. 
The FSG fundamental premise in Flight Ops is “THE TOTAL CREW CONCEPT.”

For the cockpit to operate as a coordinated well disciplined team with the PIC as the leader of that team. As the leader, the PIC must be in command and managing his resources to achieve the highest levels of safety possible, the PIC leads by example setting the standard for the rest of the crew as well as other employees.

The PIC’s authority and responsibility is recognized. The Total Crew Concept includes every member of the flight crew. This is accomplished through the mandatory utilization of the FSG Crew Resource Management Program. The PIC’s authority extends to the passengers, all crewmembers and Flight Attendants.

While in command of the aircraft, the PIC may be relieved of his command by the CP, or the DO, or their designated representative.

The PIC is responsible for the aircraft from the starting of the first engine continuing until all the engines have stopped after landing. The PIC is also relieved of responsibility when the command of the aircraft has been transferred to another qualified PIC.

Ops Manual 5.8 & 5.9

 



To qualify as a PIC, he must have on his person:  
 
  An Airline Transport Pilots License.  
 
  A First Class Medical Certificate.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  A Third class radio license.  
     A crewmember shall upon request of company management, or the FAA, present for inspection their pilot and Medical Certificates. While on duty an FSG pilot must have on his person the following: 
PIC, or Reserve PIC: 
oATP with appropriate Type Rating [“when required by FARs”], a current first class medical, a third class radio telephone license and a company identification card. 

SIC: 
o Commercial Pilots License, [ATP and aircraft type rating preferred], multiengine class rating, instrument rating, first or second class medical, a radio-telephone license and a company identification card. 

Ops Manual 5.9.4



If your medical certificate is due to expire in July, the medical certificate will be invalid after:  
 
  July 31.  
 
  Aug. 7.  
 
  Aug. 15.  
 
  Aug. 30.  
     Strict adherence to the appropriate FAA Regs is mandatory. The individual crewmember is responsible for maintaining current medical certificate required for the highest crew position for which the company qualifies him. 
The crewmember will advise the CP by the 1st day of the month in which the certificate expires that he has had or is scheduled to take a physical exam. Once the exam has been taken the crewmember will, by the most expeditious means available, transmit a copy of the new physical to the CP.

If a crewmember’s physical should expire, or the individual should fail a physical, that individual shall report their status to the CP immediately.

A medical certificate is invalid after the last day of the month in which it expires.

Ops Manual 5.9.6

 

Flight crewmembers will not partake of intoxicating beverages prior to duty within:  
 
  10 hrs.  
 
  12 hrs.  
 
  14 hrs.  
 
  8 hrs.  
     Use of intoxicants including beer and wine, while on duty or within 12 hours prior to duty, or the frequenting of drinking establishments while in uniform on duty, or the drinking of intoxicants in a public place when in uniform is not permitted. 
No person shall knowingly be allowed to carry non-prescribed narcotic drugs, marijuana, or controlled substances aboard company aircraft.

Ops Manual 5.9.7 & 5.9.8
 

Crewmembers will not accept a flight assignment within how many hours after donating blood?  
  72 hrs.  
Due to temporary lowering of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood after a blood donation, it is recommended that all crewmembers not give blood 14 days prior to a flight. 
A crewmember may perform flight duties from 3-14 days after blood donation only if 72 hrs. have elapsed after donation, a physician performs a red blood count and hemoglobin tests and finds the crewmembers blood condition to be normal.

A crewmember donating blood will report that fact to their supervisors.

No crewmember will perform flight duties within 48 hrs. after scuba diving.

Ops Manual 5.9.9 & 5.9.10



If you have a minor cold and have been taking an over the counter medication, it is your responsibility to:  
Ground yourself from flight activities.  
In order to cope with the physical demands experienced during flight, FSG personnel are expected to monitor their health and remain in good physical condition. 
Regardless of conditioning, a crewmember may experience minor illnesses occasionally. Use of over the counter medication may have an effect on the central nervous system and may be temporarily detrimental to the flight crewmember’s flying ability. The list of authorized medications change frequently and therefore will not be posted in the OM.

When a crewmember contracts an illness it is the crewmembers responsibility to remove himself from flight duty and consult an Aviation Medical Examiner.

Ops Manual 5.9.11



If the scheduled departure time for a flight is 1600 local, what would be the latest acceptable reporting time?  
  1500 local.  
     When scheduled for a flight, the crew will show at the prescribed place at the prescribed time, which will normally be sufficient to allow the crewmember to complete their pre-departure duties and be in position at their stations ready to operate at least 30 minutes prior to scheduled departure. The PIC is responsible for notifying the company if the crew becomes aware of any situation that may delay the departure, or require an adjustment of the departure time, crew rest, or crew duty time. 
Accordingly, show time shall not be less than 1 hr. prior to scheduled departure time for a domestic flight, or 2 hrs. prior for international flights. Under certain conditions with the approval of the DO show time may be reduced. This must be coordinated with maintenance and the ground handlers to ensure the aircraft is properly prepared for departure.

The Flight Follower will inform the PIC of the scheduled departure time. The PIC will be responsible for insuring that a definite show time has been set for his crew.

Ops Manual 5.10.2

       


Flight time on position flights after the completion of a revenue flight is not subject to the flight and duty time limitations of CFR 14 Part 135.  
 
  True.  
 
     
     Flight on which the aircraft is not performing revenue service [including positioning, training and test flights] may be conducted under 14 CFR Part 91 of the FARs. 
Flight time on position flights after the completion of a revenue flight [‘Tail End Positioning’] is not subject to the flight and duty time limitations of CFR 14 Part 135; however, this time must be included as “Other Commercial Flying” in computing 24 hr., 90 day, and annual 12 month limitations for subsequent Part 135 operations.

When operating under FAR Part 91, all flights will still conform to all Ops Specs, weather minima, etc. as set forth in this manual, unless exemption there from is granted for a specific matter on a specific flight from the DO or CP.

Ops Manual 5.10.3


A Category I instrument approach is any authorized precision or nonprecision instrument approach which is conducted with a minimum height for IFR flight above the touchdown zone of not less than:  
 
  1000 feet.  
 
  400 feet.  
 
  200 feet.  
 
  500 feet.  
     A Category I instrument approach is any authorized precision or nonprecision instrument approach which is conducted with a minimum height for IFR flight not less than 200 feet (60 meters) above the touchdown zone and a minimum visibility/RVR not less than ½ statute mile or RVR 1800 (for helicopters, 1/4 statute mile or RVR 1600). 
Ops Specs A002-2
 

Class II Navigation is:  
Any enroute flight operation which is not defined as Class I Navigation.  
Class II Navigation is any enroute flight operation which is not defined as Class I Navigation. Class II Navigation is any enroute flight operation or portion thereof (irrespective of the means of navigation) which takes place outside (beyond) the designated Operational Service Volume (or ICAO equivalent) of ICAO standard airway navigation facilities (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB). However, Class II Navigation does not include enroute flight operations over routes designated with a MEA GAP (or ICAO equivalent). 
Ops Specs A002-2


The Operational Service Volume is that volume of airspace surrounding a NAVAID:  
 
  Within which a signal of usable strength exists.  
 
  Which is available for operational use.  
 
  Where the signal is not operationally limited by co-channel interference.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     That volume of airspace surrounding a NAVAID available for operational use & within which a signal of usable strength exists and where said signal is not operationally limited by co-channel interference. Operational Service Volume includes: 
1) The officially designated Standard Service Volume excluding any portion which has been restricted.

2) The Expanded Service Volume.

3) Within the U.S., any published instrument flight procedure (Victor or jet airway, SID, STARs, SIAPs, or instrument departure).

4) Outside the U.S., any designated signal coverage or published instrument flight procedure equivalent to U.S. standards.

Ops Specs A002-4

 


Airways navigation facilities:  
Are ICAO Standard Navigation Aids.  
Airways navigation facilities are those ICAO Standard Navigation Aids (VOR, VOR/DME, and/or NDB) which are used to establish the enroute airway structure within the sovereign airspace of ICAO member states. These facilities are also used to establish the degree of navigation accuracy required for Air Traffic Control and Class I Navigation within that airspace. 
Ops Specs A002-1



VFR Station Referenced Class I Navigation:  
  Is any operation conducted within the OSV of ICAO Standard Navigation Aids under VFR.  
     VFR Station Referenced Class I Navigation is any operation conducted within the OSV of ICAO Standard Navigation Aids under VFR which uses nonvisual navigation aids (stations), such as VOR, VOR/DME, or NDB as the primary navigation reference. VFR Station Referenced Class I Navigation includes Class I Navigation conducted on airways and off airway routings predicated on airways navigation facilities. These operations also include Class I Navigation using an area navigation system which is certificated for IFR flights over the routes being flown. 
Ops Specs A002-5




The term "Planned Redispatch or Rerelease Enroute" means any flag operation (or any supplemental operation) that:  
Is planned before takeoff to be redispatched or rereleased in flight.  
The term "Planned Redispatch or Rerelease Enroute" means any flag operation (or any supplemental operation that includes a departure or arrival point outside the 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia) that is planned before takeoff to be redispatched or rereleased in flight in accordance with FAR 121.631(c) to a destination airport other than the destination airport specified in the original dispatch or release. 
Ops Specs A002-5




The certificate holder is authorized to:  
  Conduct Class I navigation using an area navigation system.  
The certificate holder is authorized to: 
1) Conduct Class I navigation using an area navigation system.

2) Conduct a pretakeoff contamination check during ground icing conditions for Part 135 operators.

3) Conduct Class II navigation using single long range navigation system.

4) Conduct nonscheduled passenger and/or all-cargo, special terminal area IFR airplane operations in Class G airspace.

5) Conduct turbojet airplane takeoff operations with tailwind components of 10 kts. or less.

Ops Specs A004-1 &2



The certificate holder is NOT authorized and SHALL NOT:  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     The certificate holder is NOT authorized and SHALL NOT: 
1) Conduct special enroute IFR operations in Class G airspace.

2) Conduct Part 135 on-demand day VFR airplane operations without instrument rated pilots.

3) Conduct Airplane Category II operations.

4) Conduct Airplane Category III operations.

5) Conduct Part 135 airplane operations without a deicing/anti-icing procedure.

6) Conduct operations in areas of magnetic unreliability.

Ops Specs A004-3



When conducting Class I Navigation, the:  
Aircraft's position shall be reliably fixed, as necessary.  
The certificate holder shall comply with the IFR limitations and provisions listed in the Operations Manual when conducting any enroute operation under these Operations Specifications. 
When conducting Class I Navigation, an aircraft’s position shall be "reliably fixed", as necessary, to navigate to the degree of accuracy required for Air Traffic Control.

Ops Specs B032-1


Except for operations over routes designated with a MEA GAP (or ICAO equivalent), all navigation conducted over routes which contain route segments outside the OSV of airways navigation facilities shall be conducted in accordance with:  
Class II Navigation requirements.  
These operations shall be conducted in accordance with Class II Navigation requirements. All Class II Navigation predicated on airways navigation facilities shall be conducted only within those areas where the aircraft’s position can be "reliably fixed" (at least once each hour using these facilities) to the degree of accuracy required for Air Traffic Control. 
Ops Specs B032-1



When conducting Class I navigation, an aircraft’s position shall be "reliably fixed" as necessary, to navigate to the degree of accuracy required for air traffic control. 
Ops Specs B032-1



The certificate holder is NOT authorized and SHALL NOT conduct enroute operations in:  
  Nigeria.  
     Authorized areas of enroute operations: 
1) The 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia.

2) The state of Alaska.

3) Canada, including Canadian MNPS airspace, excluding the area of magnetic unreliability as established in the Canadian AIP.

4) Mexico and Central America.

5) The Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico.

6) South America.

Ops Specs B050-1

          

When performing terminal instrument procedures at foreign airports where the metric system is used and the minimums are specified only in meters, an RVR of:  
 
  1000 feet is equal to 300 meters.  
 
  1800 feet is equal to 550 meters.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  600 feet is equal to 175 meters.  
     When operating at foreign airports where the metric system is used and the minimums are specified only in meters, the certificate holder shall use these metric operational equivalents for both takeoff and landing operations. 

 

RVR CONVERSION 
FEET METERS 
600 ft. 175 m. 
700 ft. 200 m. 
1000 ft. 300 m. 
1200 ft. 350 m. 
1600 ft. 500 m. 
1800 ft. 550 m. 
2000 ft. 600 m. 

Ops Specs C051-2 

 
Which precision instrument approach procedure is the certificate holder authorized to conduct?  
  ILS/DME.  
     Nonprecision instrument approach procedures: 
1) LDA

2) GPS

3) VOR

4) LOC

5) LOC/BC

6) LOC/DME

7) NDB

8) SDF

9) RNAV

10) VOR/DME

11) LDA/DME

Precision instrument approach procedures other than Categories II and III:
 



For straight in Category I nonprecision NDB approaches with a FAF, add:  
 
 
  50 feet to the HAT.  
 
     NOTE: 
1) For NDB approaches with a FAF, add 50 feet to the HAT.

2) For NDB approaches without a FAF, add 100 feet to the HAT.

3) For VOR approaches without a FAF, add 50 feet to the HAT.

4) For NDB approaches, the lowest authorized visibility is 3/4 and the lowest RVR is RVR 4000.

5) For LOC approaches, the lowest authorized visibility is 3/4 and the lowest RVR is RVR 4000.

6) The Mid RVR and Rollout RVR reports (if available) provide advisory information to pilots. The Mid RVR report may be substituted for the TDZ RVR report if the TDZ RVR report is not available.

Ops Specs C053-1

 

Unless the PIC has satisfactorily been trained for such, the certificate holder shall not conduct circling maneuvers when the ceiling is less than:  
1000 feet or the visibility is less than 3 statute miles.  
     The certificate holder shall not conduct circling maneuvers when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet or the visibility is less than 3 statute miles unless the Pilot in Command has satisfactorily completed an approved training program for the circling maneuver or satisfactorily completed a flight check for the circling maneuver. 
Ops Specs C075-1



The lowest authorized IFR landing minimum for instrument approaches which require a circling maneuver to the runway of intended landing shall be determined for a particular aircraft by using the appropriate speed category such as:  
  Above 165 kts., HAA 1000 and 3 statute miles visibility.  
 
Speed Category HAA Visibility in Statute Miles 
Less than 91 kts. 350 1 
91 to 120 kts. 450 1 
121 to 140 kts. 450 1 1/2 
141 to 165 kts. 550 2 
Above 165 kts. 1000 3 


Ops Specs C075-1

  


Which is a requirement for the certificate holder to conduct a contact approach?  
  The flight remains under instrument flight rules.  
 
     The flight remains under instrument flight rules and is authorized by ATC to conduct a contact approach. 
Ops Specs C076-1

 


What is NOT required when determining the equivalence of a foreign approach lighting system to U.S. standards?  
 
  Sequenced flashing lights.  
     Foreign approach lighting systems equivalent to U.S. standards are authorized for precision and nonprecision approaches. Sequenced flashing lights are not required when determining the equivalence of a foreign approach lighting system to U.S. standards. 
Ops Specs C075-2

 


When an obstacle clearance limit (OCL) is specified, what is authorized as equal to the sum of OCL and touchdown zone elevation?  
  The MDA or DH.  
     When an obstruction clearance limit is specified, the authorized MDA or DH is the sum of the OCL and the TDZE. If the TDZE for a particular runway is not available, threshold elevation shall be used. If threshold elevation is not available, airport elevation shall be used. For nonprecision approaches, the MDA may be rounded to the next higher 10 foot increment. 
Ops Specs C075-2

 


In order to descend below the MDA or DH on an instrument approach:  
  At least one visual reference must be clearly visible to the pilot.  
     At least one of the following visual references must be clearly visible to the pilot: 
1) Runway, runway markings, or runway lights.

2) Approach lights.

3) Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights.

4) Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Zone markings, or Touchdown Zone lights.

5) Visual Glidepath Indicator (such as VASI, PAPI).

6) Runway-end identifier lights.
 


An RVR landing minimum as published of RVR 1800 has an RVR landing minimum equivalent required for high minimum pilots of:  
  RVR 4500.  
     RVR Landing Minimum as Published RVR Landing Minimum Equivalent Required for High Minimum Pilots 
RVR 1800 RVR 4500 
RVR 2000 RVR 4500 
RVR 2400 RVR 5000 
RVR 4000 RVR 6000 
RVR 5000 RVR 6000 


Ops Specs C054-1

 


In determining alternate airport weather minimums, the certificate holder shall not use any published instrument approach procedure which specifies that:  
  Alternate airport weather minimums are not authorized.  
     In determining alternate airport weather minimums, the certificate holder shall not use any published instrument approach procedure which specifies that alternate airport weather minimums are not authorized. 
Ops Specs C055-1

 


What are the standard takeoff minimums for airplanes having two engines or less?  
 
  1 statute mile visibility or RVR 5000.  
     Standard takeoff minimums are defined as 1 statute mile visibility or RVR 5000 for airplanes having 2 engines or less and 1/2 statute mile visibility or RVR 2400 for airplanes having more than 2 engines. 
Ops Specs C057-1
 


When a takeoff minimum is not published the certificate holder may use the:  
  Applicable standard takeoff minimum and any lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized in the Specs.  
     When a takeoff minimum is not published the certificate holder may use the applicable standard takeoff minimum and any lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized by the Operations Specifications. When standard takeoff minimums or greater are used the Touchdown Zone RVR Report, if available, is controlling. 
Ops Specs C057-1

 


When a published takeoff minimum is greater than the applicable standard takeoff minimum, the certificate holder shall not use a takeoff minimum lower than the published minimum, unless an alternate procedure is prescribed:  
 
  Such as a minimum climb gradient compatible with aircraft capabilities.  
     Unless an alternate procedure is prescribed such as a minimum climb gradient compatible with aircraft capabilities, the certificate holder shall not use a takeoff minimum lower than the published minimum. The Touchdown Zone RVR Report, if available, is controlling. 
Ops Specs C057-1

 


If the lowest authorized straight in Category I IFR landing minimum applicable for a particular airport is used, the:  
  Touchdown Zone RVR Report, if available, is controlling.  
 
     When takeoff minimums are equal to or less than the applicable standard takeoff minimum, the certificate holder is authorized to use a takeoff minimum equal to the lowest authorized straight in Category I IFR landing minimum applicable to the certificate holder for that particular airport. The Touchdown Zone RVR Report, if available, is controlling. 
Ops Specs C057-1

 


MEL authorization requires the repair of which items within three consecutive calendar days, excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the Aircraft Maintenance Log?  
 
  Category B.  
     Maximum times between deferral and repair: 
1) Category A - Within the time interval specified in the remarks column of the certificate holder’s approved MEL.

2) Category B - Within 3 consecutive calendar days.

3) Category C - Within 10 consecutive calendar days.

4) Category D - Within 120 consecutive calendar days.

Ops Specs D95-2

 


Continuing authorizations to approve extensions for Category B & C items in the MEL are authorized provided the Company notifies the FSDO within how many hours of an extension approval?  
  24.  
     The certificate holder is authorized to use a continuing authorization to approve extensions to the maximum repair interval for category B and C items as specified in the approved MEL provided the responsible Flight Standards District Office is notified within 24 hours of any extension approval. The certificate holder is not authorized to approve any extensions to the maximum repair interval for category A items as specified in the approved MEL. The Flight Standards District Office may deny the use of the continuing authorization if abuse is evident. 
Ops Specs D95-2

 


	
The certificate holder is authorized to conduct which operation with the BE-200-200?  
 
  MEL.  
 
  IFR/VFR.  
 
  Day/night.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     The certificate holder is authorized to conduct MEL, IFR/VFR, day/night operations in the following: 
AMD-50-900

BE-200-200

CE-500-560

CE-500-S550

CE-525-525

CE-650-650

CE-750-750

CL-600-1A11

CL-600-2B16

CL-604-604

GA-1159-1159

GA-1159-A

GA-IV-IV

HS-125-700A

HS-125-800

LR-55-55

LR-60-60

Ops Specs A003-1
 


Thomas Connelly holds the management position of:  
 
  Director of Maintenance.  
     The certificate holder uses the following named personnel in the management positions listed below: 
1) Director of Operations – Thomas H. Miller

2) Director of Maintenance – Thomas Connelly

3) Chief Pilot – Roger Wanamaker

Ops Specs A006-1

 


 One of the five requirements for a flight crew to accept a visual approach or a Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP) is that the flight is operating within:  
  35 NM of the destination airport.  
     One of the five requirements is that the flight is operating within 35 nautical miles of the destination airport and visual contact is established with the traffic to be followed or the flight crew has established and can maintain visual contact with the airport or a charted visual landmark for a CVFP throughout the approach and landing. 
Ops Specs C077-1

 


The specific weather conditions required to allow the flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan and operate under VFR may be found in:  
  FAR 91.155.  
     The flight crew may cancel an IFR flight plan and operate under visual flight rules provided VFR weather conditions as specified in FAR 91.155 exist. 
Ops Specs C077-2

 


If it is not possible for the crew to obtain an IFR clearance, they may take off under VFR provided all required conditions exist and they do obtain an IFR clearance no farther than:  
 
  50 NM from the departure airport.  
     The flight crew must obtain an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but under no circumstances farther than 50 nautical miles from the departure airport. 
Ops Specs C077-3

 


A second-in-command must have how many hours as pilot in the specific make and model of the airplane in order to make a takeoff using lower than standard takeoff minimums?  
 
  100.  
     Any second-in-command authorized by the certificate holder to manipulate the flight controls during takeoff (using the minimums authorized by subparagraph d.) must have at least 100 hours flight time as a pilot in the specific make and model airplane and must have satisfactorily completed the certificate holder’s approved training program for those minimums. 
Ops Specs C079-2

 


In order to make a takeoff using lower than standard takeoff minimums each pilot station must have which of the following equipment?  
 
  Aircraft pitch and bank information from a gyroscopic source.  
 
  Vertical speed, airspeed and altitude.  
 
  Aircraft heading from a gyroscopic source.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     Each pilot station must have operational equipment which displays a reliable indication of the following: 
a) Aircraft pitch and bank information, from a gyroscopic source.

b) Aircraft heading, from a gyroscopic source.

c) Vertical speed.

d) Airspeed.

e) Altitude.

Each pilot station must have an independent source of power for a and b above.

Ops Specs C079-2
 
  
 



When there are difficulties during a flight, what report must the PIC complete at the end of the flight?  
 
  The Event Log.  
     The Event Log provides the PIC’s account of events involving difficulties encountered in flight. 
The Event Log may be completed anytime the Captain determines that any flight difficulty warrants its completion. However, an Event Log must be completed at the completion of any flight in which difficulties are encountered which may require the completion of a Service Difficulty Report, a Mechanical Interruption Summary Report, or the reporting of a safety related issued. [Refer to MM Section 5].

The completed Event Log will be sent to the Flight Operations Flight Follower, who will in turn forward the report to the Director of Operations, Director of Safety and the Director of Maintenance, within 60 minutes or as soon as practicable after receipt, via FAX or telephone if necessary.

Ops Manual 4.1
 


Which of the following events will a PIC be required to report on the Event Log?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  When operating standards are degraded due to deficient GROUND SUPPORT or ground facilities.  
 
  When deficiencies occur in OPERATING PROCEDURES or MANUALS.  
 
  When an in-flight ENGINE SHUTDOWN occurs.  
     PICS EVENT LOG-MANDATORY REPORT EVENTS 
When a system DEFECT occurs, which adversely affects the handling characteristics of the aircraft or renders it unfit to fly. 
When an in-flight ENGINE SHUTDOWN occurs. 
When there is warning of FIRE or SMOKE. 
When an EMERGENCY is declared. 
When SAFETY EQUIPMENT or PROCEDURES are defective or inadequate. 
When deficiencies occur in OPERATING PROCEDURES or MANUALS. 
When there is incorrect LOADING of FUEL, CARGO, or DANGEROUS GOODS, or when there is a significant error in WEIGHT & BALANCE. 
When operating standards are degraded due to deficient GROUND SUPPORT or ground facilities. 
When an incident occurs resulting in GROUND, AIRCRAFT, or PROPERTY DAMAGE. 
When a REJECTED TAKEOFF is executed after 100 knots. 
An EXCURSION occurs, in which any part of the aircraft leaves the paved surface during taxi, takeoff or landing. 
Ops Manual 4.4
 


A report will be sent to NTSB in the event of:  
 
  Electrical failure requiring the use of emergency power.  
     NTSB REPORTABLE EVENTS: 
Aircraft accident. 
Damage to property other than the aircraft is estimated to exceed $25,000. 
Electrical failure requiring use of emergency power. 
Emergency evacuation. 
Engine failure of more than one engine. 
Flight control system malfunction. 
Flight crew incapacitation. 
Hydraulic system failure resulting in the use of the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system. 
In-flight fire. 
Passenger death or serious injury as a result of an aircraft accident only. 
Ops Manual 4.5

 


A report will be prepared for the FAA for which of the following events?  
  Runway incursion.  
     FAA REPORTABLE EVENTS: 
Aircraft departing paved surface. 
Hijack/terrorist act. 
Landing at other than the nearest suitable airport following engine failure. 
Near mid-air collision. 
Assigned altitude deviation [ADD]. 
Total Vertical Error [TVE]. 
Airport Hazards. 
ATC incident. 
Dangerous Goods event. 
Declaration of emergency or use of emergency procedures or equipment. 
Ground facility failure affecting flight safety. 
Lavatory smoke detector tampering. 
Runway/taxiway incursion. 
Third party damage/injury. 
Ops Manual 4.6

 


Under what type of situation would the State Department be also contacted?  
  Incidents occurring overseas.  
     The PIC of any aircraft involved in an accident will immediately notify Flight Services Group through the Director of Operations in person or by telephone. Concurrently, he or she will then notify the nearest FAA District Office, FAA Air Traffic Control Facility or the NTSB. Reference the Safety Manual for accident/incident notification checklists. In the event the PIC is unable to make any required notifications the DO will make the notifications to the required offices. 
Manner of notification will be:

Direct notification of Flight Services Group in person or by telephone. 
Telegraph. 
Notification of the FAA, who will notify the NTSB. 
Reference the Safety Manual and Complete the ‘AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT/INCIDENT NOTIFICATION CHECKLIST’. 
In the event of an accident or incident involving aircraft, passengers or personal property, the following persons will be notified:

NTSB. 
FAA. 
State Department [For incidents occurring overseas, or involving Foreign Nationals]. 
Ops Manual 4.7

 


An occurrence where death or serious injury is involved or in which the aircraft received substantial damage (as defined in NTSB 830.2) is:  
  An accident, and requires immediate notification to the nearest NTSB Field Office.  
     AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT: An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage. 
Ops Manual 5.1.2

 


A fatal injury is any injury which results in death due to an aircraft accident within:  
  30 days.  
     FATAL INJURY: Any injury that results in death within 30 days of the accident. 
OPERATOR: Any person who causes or authorizes the operations of an aircraft, such as the owner, lessee, or bailee of an aircraft.

Ops Manual 5.1.2

 


An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with operation of an aircraft, which affects the safety of operations is:  
  An incident, and does not require immediate NTSB notification unless it is a "listed" incident.  
     INCIDENT: An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations. 
Ops Manual 5.1.2

 


A serious injury means an injury that requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours from an injury sustained from an accident within the previous:  
  7 days.  
     SERIOUS INJURY: Any injury which: 
Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received. 
Results in a fracture of any bone [except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose]. 
Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage. 
Involves any internal organ or, 
Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface. 
Ops Manual 5.1.2

 


Flt control system malfunction or failure, inability of any required flight crew to perform flight duties due to illness or injury, failure of turbine engine structural components (except compressor & turbine blades/vanes), in-flight fire, aircraft collision in flight:  
  These are all "Listed Incidents", and require immediate notification to the NTSB.  
     The DO of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board field office when: 
An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: 
Flight control system malfunction or failure. 
Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform his normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness. 
Failure of structural components of turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes. 
In-flight fire. 
Aircraft collide in flight. 
An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident. 
Ops Manual 5.2.1

 


Prior to the time the NTSB, or its authorized representative, takes custody of the aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, it may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary:  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  To protect the public from injury.  
 
  To remove persons injured or trapped.  
 
  To protect the wreckage from further damage.  
     The DO is responsible for preserving to the extent possible any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail aboard the aircraft, and all records, including all recording mediums of flight, maintenance, and voice recorders, pertaining to the operation and maintenance of the aircraft and to the airmen until the Board takes custody thereof or a release is granted pursuant to 831.10(b). 
Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of the aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary:

To remove persons injured or trapped. 
To protect the wreckage from further damage or, 
To protect the public from injury. 
Where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail or cargo. Sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made, if possible, of the original position and condition of the wreckage and any significant impact marks. All records, reports, internal documents and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident will be retained by the operator until authorized by the Board to the contrary.

Ops Manual 5.4.1
 


The Director of Operations shall send a report of an overdue aircraft after:  
  7 days.  
     The DO shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1 or 6120.2 within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an incident for which notification is required by 830.5 (a) shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB. 
Each crewmember, if physically able at the time the report is submitted, shall attach thereto a statement setting forth the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to the accident or incident as they appear to him to the best of his knowledge and belief. If the crewmember is incapacitated, he shall submit the statement as soon as he is physically able.

The DO shall file any report with the field office of the NTSB nearest the accident or incident.

Ops Manual 5.5.1

 


Who is jointly responsible with the Director of Safety for the control and quality of the Emergency Procedures?  
  Director of Operations.  
     The DO is jointly responsible with the Director of Safety for the control and quality of the Emergency Procedures Section of this manual. Any questions regarding the emergency procedures process shall be directed to the DO or the Director of Safety. 
It is the responsibility of each crewmember to exercise good judgment to ensure the safety of the passengers. It is never required that a crewmember compromise personal safety when involved in any emergency or irregular situation. Additionally, crewmembers must have a thorough understanding and knowledge of emergency procedures and equipment.

Crewmembers have the responsibility to immediately report to the PIC any situation that poses a potential threat to the safety of the aircraft, passengers or crew.

Flight Followers have the responsibility to notify the DO, Director of Safety, and the CP when an emergency may exist.

Ops Manual 2.1.1
 



How are emergency landings identified and categorized?  
 
  By the time available from the notification to the actual landing.  
     Emergency landings [land or water] are identified and categorized by the time available from the notification to the actual landing. 
An unplanned emergency occurs with little or no warning during the taxi, takeoff or the landing phases of flight.

A planned emergency provides the crew with time to prepare the passengers with instructions that will provide better protection from the potential dangers of the anticipated emergency. Notification of the emergency may vary from as little as 10 minutes up to one hour [or more]. The manner in which the cabin can be prepared depends on time available.

SHORT TIME: 10 minutes from time of notification to projected touch down.

LONG TIME: 10 minutes or more from time of notification to projected touch down.

Ops Manual 4.4
 


For 135 BBJ ops, in an emergency situation the PIC will order the IFD to the cockpit immediately.  
  True.  
    
     FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS ONLY: 
The PIC will instruct the In Flight Director [IFD] by PA or interphone to report to the cockpit, “INFLIGHT DIRECTOR REPORT TO THE FLIGHT DECK,” the IFD must report immediately to the PIC and the other Flight Attendant’s should discontinue their normal cabin duties, go to the rear galley and await briefing by the IFD.

The PIC must include the following information in an oral briefing to the IFD [NITSA]:

NATURE 
oThe nature of the emergency and the type of landing expected. 

INTENTIONS 
oWhat the PIC intends to do. 

TIME 
oAvailable until landing. [Synchronize watch with PIC]. 

SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS 
o Evacuation signal.

o Expected conditions.

o Usable or unusable exits.

o Relocation of passengers if applicable.

ANNOUNCEMENTS 
oWho should make it and how. 

Ops Manual 4.5 
 


When communicating with passengers in emergency situations, crewmembers should adapt the following techniques:  
 
  Use loud, precise and aggressive words when shouting commands.  
     When communicating with passengers in emergency situations, crewmembers should adapt the following techniques: 
AUDIO 
o Avoid misunderstanding by listening carefully to instructions.

ORAL 
o Use a calm, clear tone of voice when briefing passengers.

o Use loud, precise and aggressive words when shouting commands.

VISUAL 
o Control facial expressions to reflect calm and confidence.

o Use eye-to-eye contact. Elevate above the crowd if possible.

o Use layman’s words, not aviation terminology. Issue positive commands, avoid using negatives.

BODY LANGUAGE 
o Use arm and hand signals to reinforce verbal instructions or commands.

o Use physical contact if necessary to maintain evacuation flow.

Ops Manual 4.8

 


Brace position procedures for an infant that has reached his 2nd birthday are to:  
  Place the child in the passenger seat with seatbelt securely fastened.  
    CHILD/INFANT BRACE POSITION PROCEDURES WITHOUT APPROVED CHILD/INFANT SEAT 
A child who has reached his 2nd birthday:

Place the child in passenger seat with seatbelt securely fastened. If due to small size of the child the seatbelt cannot be securely fastened, place a pillow between child and seatback to take up the slack. 
Instruct adult/parent to lean child forward and hold child’s head down when brace command is given. 
CHILD/INFANT BRACE POSITION PROCEDURES WITHOUT APPROVED CHILD/INFANT SEAT

A child who has NOT reached his 2nd birthday:

Wrap the infant in a blanket to provide extra cushioning. 
Instruct the adult to hold the infant [outside the seatbelt] in the following manner: 
o Instruct the adult to hold the infant with one arm supporting the back; the baby’s head should rest in the palm of the adult’s hand.

o Hold baby against opposite shoulder

o Lean FORWARD with other arm resting on seatback if possible and head leaning on arm.

Ops Manual 4.9.3

 


Before opening the exit door after an emergency landing, what is one of the first things that you will do?  
 
  Place both hands around the exit frame to feel for heat.  
     Crewmembers will assess outside conditions before and after opening an exit. 
BEFORE OPENING THE EXIT:

Place both hands around the exit frame to feel for heat. 
Look for dangerous conditions such as fire, smoke, jagged metal or any obstruction that may cause injuries to passengers or damage any evacuation device. In a ditching situation, check water level to ensure it is below the door. If danger exists or water level is too high, redirect passengers to nearest usable exit. 
AFTER OPENING THE EXIT:

Before initiating the evacuation flow, evaluate attitude of the aircraft and any evacuation device. Assess for dangerous conditions. Redirect if necessary. 
During evacuation, continue to assess outside conditions, integrity of any evacuation device and attitude of the aircraft. Redirect if dangerous conditions develop. 
Ops Manual 4.14

 


How many helpers should be chosen to assist a non-ambulatory person to evacuate?  
  Two.  
     NON-AMBULATORY PASSENGERS [INCLUDING MULTIPLE HANDICAPPED] EVACUATION 
Whether traveling alone or with a companion, 2 helpers should be assigned by the PIC or his designee to assist and instructed to evacuate near the end of the majority passenger flow. Helper Passenger should be briefed by the PIC or his designee on the following methods to assist the passenger:

Instruct passenger to lean forward. 
1st helper reaches from behind and places his arms under the handicapped passenger’s arms and around the ribcage gripping passenger’s wrist. 
2nd helper grabs passenger’s legs. 
Both helpers lift and carry passenger to nearest exit. If there is no slide then they will escort the passenger out of the aircraft to safety. If there is a slide [FAR 135 BBJ aircraft] proceed as follows: 
oInstruct 2 able bodied persons to go to bottom of the slide to catch the handicapped passenger 
oSlide the passenger down feet first. 


Ops Manual 4.21

 


In a ditching situation, what are the SIC's duties?  
 
  Transmit radio messages.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Verify that all passengers have evacuated the aircraft.  
 
  Enter and assume command of the life raft that is not occupied by the PIC.  
     Prior to ditching, the SIC will transmit radio messages, complete emergency checklists, and assist in preparation for ditching as directed by the PIC. He will don [but not inflate] his life vest and loosen his tie and collar. 
After the aircraft has come to rest in the water, the SIC will move to the cabin and assist in deployment of any life raft/survival kit that has not yet been deployed. He will receive and position the life raft, inflate the life raft, and assist passengers boarding the raft. The command, “Inflate Life Vests” will be given as passengers exit the aircraft.

After verifying that all passengers have evacuated, the SIC will enter and assume command of whichever life raft is not occupied by the PIC, attempt to pick up any personnel in the water, and join company with the other rafts and assist PIC in any required duties.

Ops Manual 4.23
 


The cabin is generally pressurized to what pressure when flying at high altitudes?  
 
  5,000 to 8,000 ft. above sea level.  
     To maintain sufficient level of oxygen in the cabin atmosphere at high altitudes, the aircraft is pressurized [normally equal to the air pressure at 5,000 to 8,000 ft. above sea level]. 
Decompression is a failure to maintain this pressure and can be classified as slow or rapid/explosive. A slow decompression is a gradual loss of cabin pressure, caused by a malfunction of the pressurization system or a pressure lead in the aircraft structure.

A rapid and explosive decompression is a sudden loss of cabin pressure that may be caused by an explosion, a rupture in the fuselage or a malfunction of the pressurization system. A rapid decompression causes the lungs to decompress faster than the cabin and usually does not result in lung damage. In an explosive decompression, the cabin pressure changes faster than the lungs can decompress and may cause serious lung damage.

Ops Manual 4.24.2

 


What is the primary danger from decompression?  
 
  Hypoxia.  
     The primary danger from decompression is hypoxia. This is a lack of adequate oxygen to body tissues. An insufficient quantity of oxygen can cause loss of consciousness and ultimately lead to death in a relatively short amount of time, if not corrected. A supplemental supply of oxygen must be administered immediately. The following are symptoms of hypoxia that may or may not be noticed, depending on how serious the decompression is and how rapidly it occurs: 
Headache, earache, fatigue 
Impaired judgment/vision 
Dizziness, poor coordination 
Distress in ears, sinuses and abdomen 
A feeling of chest expansion, difficulty in breathing and speaking 
Loss of muscle coordination 
Nail beds turning blue 
Ops Manual 2.24.5

 


What is the time of useful consciousness following decompression at an cabin altitude of 35,000 feet?  
 
  30-60 seconds.  
     The time of useful consciousness following a decompression is related to cabin altitude:

43,000 9-12 seconds 
40,000 15-20 seconds 
35,000 30-60 seconds  
30,000 1-2 minutes 
28,000 2.5-3 minutes 
25,000 3-5 minutes 
22,000 10 minutes 

The passenger oxygen system is designed to supply oxygen to all occupants while the aircraft is descending to a safe altitude immediately following decompression.

Ops Manual 4.24.6

 


If a ciruit breaker 'pops out', you should:  
 
  Contact the PIC.  
     A fire onboard an aircraft is a life-threatening emergency. Flight crews should be alert at all times to the possibility of a fire, both inside and outside the aircraft. During preflight always review: 
Personal briefing equipment [PBE]. 
Fire extinguishers, their proper use, operation and location. 
The location of circuit breakers in each galley, how to gain access to individual circuit breaker panels, how to pull a circuit breaker. 
Fire fighting procedures 
If a fire is discovered, communication and teamwork are essential in fighting the fire.

FIRE PREVENTION TECHNIQUES:

Turn off ovens and coffee makers when not in use. 
Do not use ovens as storage space for dry supplies or canned goods. 
If a circuit breaker “pops out”, do not reset. Notify the PIC immediately. 
Monitor the aisle and lavatories for passengers smoking. Attempt to relocate passengers wishing to smoke to the smoking area. 
Monitor passengers falling asleep with lighted cigarettes. 
Ops Manual 4.26

 


A Class "A" fire can be extinguished with what type of extinguisher?  
 
  H2O.  
     There are 3 essential elements common to a fire: fuel, oxygen and heat. The elimination of any one of these elements will extinguish the fire. Fires are categorized by the type of fuel that is burning. 
Class ‘A’ fire – ordinary combustibles.

FUEL: paper, wood, fabric, trash, etc.

LOCATION: Trash receptacles, seat cushions, rugs, overhead storage compartments, and curtains.

EXTINGUISHER: H2O extinguisher or a non-flammable liquid. Smother the flame using blankets, coats or other thick items.

NOTE: Class “A” fires tend to burn deep below the surface. Water cools and soaks, eliminating the heat.

Ops Manual 4.26.5

 


A Class "C" fire is what type of fire?  
  Electrical.  
     Class “B” Fire – flammable liquids. 
FUEL: oil, gasoline, grease, paint, alcohol, lighter fluid, jet fuel, cleaning solvents, etc.

LOCATION: galley ovens [caused by grease], ramp area [fuel spills].

EXTINGUISHER: HALON 1211 Extinguisher.

NOTE: Continue extinguisher discharge to prevent re-ignition. Do not use water to extinguish a class “B” fire, as it will spread the fuel.

Class “C” Fire – electrical fire.

FUEL: Electrical equipment.

LOCATION: Galleys, armrest, lavatories or any area that has electrical equipment and/or electrical wiring in close proximity

EXTINGUISHER: HALON 1211 Extinguisher.

NOTE: Turn power off. Do not use water as it may conduct electricity and cause electrical shock.

Ops Manual 4.26.5

 


If the PF becomes temporarily incapacitated, he will not take control of the aircraft until he is feeling better.  
 
  False, he will not take control for the remainder of the flight.  
     If the PF becomes incapacitated he is to immediately inform the PNF of his incapacitation. The PF will turn over the control using the phrase, “you have the controls.” The PNF will acknowledge control by saying, “I have the controls”. The destination, base or appropriate agency, is to be informed of the problem and a diversion made to the nearest suitable landing place, bearing in mind the nature and severity of the symptoms and the availability of medical facilities. 
The affected pilot is not to take control again for the remainder of the flight and is to lock his shoulder harness to prevent him falling onto the controls if the illness becomes more severe. The affected pilot is not to fly again as a crewmember until he has been medically examined or, in the case of diarrhea or vomiting, exhibits no symptoms for 24 hrs.

Ops Manual 4.28.1




If there is a loss of radio communications and the pilot has determined there must be a problem at the tower or airport, he will:  
 
  Make a command decision whether to land at this airport or not.  
 
  Contact the Director of Operations and ask him to advise.  
 
  Proceed to an area that has VFR conditions.  
 
  Contact the previous ATC and proceed to the alternate airport.  
     Should a loss of communication occur, the PIC will ensure the aircraft radios are working properly by attempting to establish communication with other aircraft, local dispatch, or another ATC facility. 
If it is determined that the aircraft radio are inoperative, use loss of communication procedures as specified in FAR 91.129(d) which states:

“If the aircraft radio fails in flight, the PIC may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact is made and maintained with the tower, and a clearance to land is received. 
If the aircraft radio fails while under IFR, the pilot must comply with FAR 91.185. 
If the aircraft radios are determined to be operating properly and the operating tower still does not respond, the pilot should assume there is a problem with the tower or the airport. 
If time and fuel permit, and safety is not an immediate concern, attempt to contact another ground agency, company operations, or previous ATC facility and request a telephone inquiry to determine the nature of the problem. If the above conditions do not permit this, contact the previous ATC facility and proceed to the alternate or other nearest suitable airport for landing. 
Ops Manual 4.28.5

 


If radio communication fails in IFR conditions, the pilot will proceed by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received:  
 
  If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance  
 
  In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.  
 
  In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     IFR OPERATIONS: TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE 
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall comply with the rules of this section.

If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following:

By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received: 
oIf being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. 
oIn the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance or, 
oIn the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. 

At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: 
o The altitude of flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
o The minimum altitude [converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in 91.177] for IFR operations.
o The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
o Leave the clearance limit.

Ops Manual 4.29.1
 


Who will ensure that all emergency medical equipment is readily accessible?  
  Each crewmember.  
     Prior to flight each crewmember will ensure that all emergency medical equipment is readily accessible to the crewmember. If the equipment is located in the passenger compartment the crewmember will ensure that the equipment is clearly identified and marked to indicate its method of operation. 
Ops Manual 4.30

  


Who will arrange, with the PIC, the ground handling and accommodations to ensure proper flight planning?  
 
  Flight Followers.  
     The DO delegates the verification of authority/equipment to Flight Followers and the supervision of this task to the Operations Manager. Flight Followers shall complete the following items coordinating his efforts with the PIC to ensure proper trip planning: 
Route determination. 
Flight time. 
Compliance with crew flight and duty limitations. 
Fuel uplift arrangement, if necessary. 
Ground handling and accommodations. 
Applicable civil aviation regulations if more restrictive than ICAO or FAR 61,91, and 135. 
Ensure that the necessary visas or tourist cards have been obtained and that the client has been advised and meets the immunization/inoculation requirements of the areas to immunization/inoculation records. 
Ops Manual 4.3.2

 


When flying below 10,000 ft. MSL, what is the maximum indicated airspeed in which you may operate?  
 
  250 kts.  
     Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the PIC will ensure through his direct management that the aircraft is never operated below 10,000 ft. MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts. [288 MPH].

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the PIC will ensure through his direct management that no aircraft is operated below 2,500 ft. above the surface within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts. [230 MPH].

The PIC will ensure through his direct management that no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts. [230 MPH].

If the maximum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft may be operated at the minimum speed.

Ops Manual 4.7
 


The ceiling is 900 ft and visibility 4 miles. Can you accept an LAHSO clearance?  
  No, LAHSO are not authorized.  
     The PIC will not accept or will he allow to be accepted an ATC clearance to “land and hold short” of an intersecting runway. At airports where “LAHSO” are in affect the PIC will advise approach control and or the tower, as soon as possible that they are unable to accept a LAHSO clearance. The PIC should be prepared for a possible runway change or delay in the approach and landing sequence after advising ATC that the flight cannot accept LAHSO clearance. 
Ops Manual 4.8

 


Critical Phase of Flight includes all ground operations and all flight operations conducted below:  
 
  10,000 ft. MSL.  
     An entry will be recorded in the aircraft log by the PIC after any overweight landing and the Maintenance Coordinator will be immediately notified by the PIC by an appropriate means of communication [telephone, fax, SITA, etc.]. 
The PIC will ensure through management, all cockpit conversations and activities will be confined to those essential to safe operation and conduct of duties, during the critical phase of flight beginning with blockout until vacating 10,000 ft. The same procedure will apply from leaving 10,000 ft. to completion of block-in and secure checklists.

The pilot flying will so brief his crew and any other occupants of the cockpit of this policy.

Ops Manual 4.9 & 10
 


Within 2 hours of flight duty, the PIC and SIC will eat together to discuss the flight and to avoid needing to eat while in flight.  
 
  False.  
     PRIOR TO FLIGHT: 
1) The PIC and SIC shall not eat the same food prepared in the same establishment within 6 hrs. of any flight duty.

2) Crewmembers are cautioned against eating such foods as mayonnaise, custards, cream pastries, meat salads and deviled eggs prior to and during flight. 


DURING FLIGHT:

1) On flights using ovens, the cabin attendant shall use separate ovens if available, in preparation of the PIC’s tray and the SIC’s tray.

2) The PIC and SIC shall be provided different in flight food services.

3) Unless dictated by flight duration, it is advisable that the PIC and SIC do not eat at the same time.

Ops Manual 4.10.6

 


Which management position may allow the use of one person to fill the positions of two airmen at the same time?  
 
  None, two pilot operations will always be manned by two airmen.  
     All pilots are responsible to notify the company of any change in their legal flying status. Pilots are not to accept flights when their physical or mental condition is a detriment to the safety of the operation. Pilots known to be suffering mental anguish, anxieties or other problems that would prevent their full concentration and attention to the flight are not to be assigned to flying duties.

All pilots will be responsible for and will ensure through confirmation with flight operations that they are in compliance at all times with the applicable Federal Aviation Regulation that govern flight and duty time restrictions associated with their duties as well as any qualification or recency of experience requirements that may be applicable to their specific assignments.

The Operations Manager will not permit any flight to be operated with less than the required flight crew, by reference to the airworthiness certificate of the Airplane Flight Manual or by FAR 91 or 135 for the operation being conducted. The Director of Operations will never allow the use of one person to fill the positions of 2 airmen at the same time. The Operations Manager will assign one crewmember as PIC and one as SIC for all operations for a minimum of two-pilot crews.

Ops Manual 4.24.1
 


How often do VOR checks need to be accomplished?  
 
  30 days.  
     VOR checks will be accomplished by the PIC as required by FAR 91.171. These checks will be recorded in the VOR CHECK BLOCK on the AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE LOG. This check will be performed at least once every 30 days. Should the prior check have been performed more than 30 days prior to any flight, a VOR check will be performed prior to that flight. If a check is not due, an entry will be made indicating the date of the last check.

Ops Manual 4.13.1
 


All company autopilots to be used for IFR single pilot operations will be tested:  
  Every 12 calendar months.  
     The PIC will ensure that no person shall knowingly be allowed to carry non-prescribed narcotic drugs, marijuana, or controlled substances aboard company aircraft.

FAR 135 OPERATIONS ONLY:

The autopilots of all company aircraft that are to be used for IFR single pilot operations will be maintained in an airworthy condition. All company autopilots that are to be used for IFR single pilot operations shall be tested/inspected each 12 calendar months in accordance with the manufacturer’s service manual by an appropriately rated mechanic or repair station. Pilots conducting single pilot operations will be trained and tested as required by FAR 135.

Ops Manual 4.15
 


No FSG pilot will use an autopilot enroute, including climb and descent, at an altitude above the terrain that is less than:  
  Twice the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction of the autopilot under cruise conditions.  
     No FSG pilot will use an autopilot enroute, including climb and descent, at an altitude above the terrain that is less than twice the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction of the autopilot under cruise conditions, or less than 500 ft., whichever is higher.

During approaches when using an instrument approach facility, FSG pilots will not use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain, that is less than twice the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction of the autopilot under approach conditions, or less than 50 ft. below the approved minimum descent altitude, or decision height for the facility, whichever is higher, except:

When reported weather conditions are less than basic VFR weather conditions, FSG pilots will not use an autopilot with an approach coupler for ILS approaches, at an altitude above the terrain that is less than 50 ft. higher than the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for the malfunction of the autopilot, with approach coupler under approach conditions; and, 
When reported weather conditions are equal to or better than basic VFR, FSG pilots will not use an autopilot with an approach coupler for ILS approaches at an altitude above the terrain that is less than the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for the malfunction of the autopilot with approach coupler under approach conditions or 50 ft., whichever is higher. 
Ops Manual 4.15.2
 


During refueling operations, smoking fire, flame or sparks is strictly prohibited within:  
  100 ft.  
     AIRCRAFT REFUELING CONDITIONS:

1) Smoking fire, flame or sparks in, about, or within 100 ft. of the aircraft during refueling operation is strictly prohibited. It is each crewmember’s responsibility to see that the ‘NO SMOKING’ policy is enforced.

2) The First Officer, or Maintenance Representative, or other qualified person shall monitor the fueling panel during the fueling operation.

3) Electrical equipment of a non-explosion proof rotary nature [inverters, etc.] may not be operated during fueling operation. Necessary cabin and other lights may be used providing all switches are set prior to refueling and are not moved during the operation. The turning on and off of galley power is the most common infraction of this policy. Only a qualified crewmember or maintenance representative who will be monitoring the refueling operations should operate this switch. Batteries may not be worked upon, or connected or disconnected while fueling due to possible arcing.

4) During refueling both the aircraft and the fuel dispenser apparatus shall be grounded to a point or points of zero electrical potential. A “Y” ground wire is most desirable.

5) When refueling is accomplished at night, adequate light shall be provided. Flashlights used shall be of the vapor proof type.

6) When fueling is accomplished during conditions of rain or snow, precautions shall be taken to prevent the entrance of moisture into the aircraft fuel tanks.

7) Fuel must be dispensed from a filtered dispenser unit. 

8) When their use is not necessary ground power units near the aircraft will be shut down during refueling.

9) This restriction will not apply to Company aircraft with an integral APU.

Ops Manual 4.16.1
 


If passengers are onboard during refueling, the PIC will ensure:  
  All electrical switches are off.  
     The PIC or his or her authorized representative will accomplish the following:

Be present and supervise the entire refueling operation. 
Ascertain that adequate fire extinguishers are readily available. 
Verify that the aircraft is safely configured for refueling. 
Ascertain that servicing personnel connect ground wires or bond the aircraft to eliminate static electricity before the fuel nozzle is allowed near the fuel tanks. 
Verify by visual inspection that the correct amount and grade of fuel is in the tanks. 
Verify that fuel tank caps are properly installed and pressure fueling switches and door are properly secured. 
Drain sumps, strainers and fuel lines in accordance with procedures set forth in the AFM to eliminate water and contamination. 
Ascertain that there is no smoking within 50 ft. of the aircraft. 
If passengers are onboard during refueling, the PIC or his authorized representative will accomplish the following: 
oOrally brief all passengers that the aircraft is being refueled. 
oEnsure that all smoking materials are extinguished. 
oEnsure that all electrical switches are off. 
oEnsure that engines are and remain shut off.
oEnsure that aircraft is grounded. 
oEnsure the cabin door remains open at all times. 
oEnsure that passengers remain seated with seatbelts unfastened. 

Ops Manual 4.16.2
 


In the event that fuel must be acquired from other than normal sources, the PIC shall ensure:  
 
  The aircraft and fueling source are properly grounded.  
 
  All the answers are correct.  
 
  No smoking within 50 ft. of the aircraft.  
 
  A fire extinguisher is available within 50 ft. of the aircraft.  
     In the event that fuel must be acquired from other than normal sources, the PIC shall ensure: 
The color of the fuel to be used is of the proper grade required by aircraft. 
Passengers are not on board the aircraft and are at least 50 ft. from the aircraft. 
No smoking, or open flame within 50 ft. of the aircraft. 
A fire extinguisher is available within 50 ft. of the aircraft. 
All switches will be OFF unless required for refueling. 
The aircraft and fueling source shall be properly grounded. 
After fueling, all fuel sumps will be drained to check for and removal of any foreign materials or water. 
No power carts will be connected or disconnected while refueling. 
No automotive fuel may be used. The next higher grade fuel may be used. The PIC shall check the AFM for information regarding fuel he can use.

In the event the above limits can’t be adhered to, the aircraft will be grounded until the proper fuel is made available.

Under no circumstances will a company aircraft be refueled during a thunderstorm. All company pilots will assure that ground personnel do not attempt to refuel company aircraft while such conditions exist, either at home base or while away from home base.

Ops Manual 4.16.3
 


What method is used of completing checklists?  
  Challenge and response.  
     Checklists are established for all aircraft types for both normal and emergency/non-normal procedures. They must be used for all stages of flight in accordance with the SOPs: 
Checklists are conducted using the challenge and response type as detailed in the respective AFM and aircraft Operations Manuals. 
Whenever a checklist item cannot be completed, the checklist reading should stop at that item and only resume when that item can be completed. 
On completion of the required checklist the reader of the checklist should respond; “xxx checklist complete.” 
In order to avoid any misunderstanding, English language must be used at all times on the flight deck. 
Ops Manual 4.21
 


When interruptions on checklists occur before engine start, and are caused by one flight crewmember vacating an assigned flight deck duty station, the flight crew must verify the accomplishment of all of the checklist items that have been accomplished up to the point where the current checklist was interrupted.  
  True.  
     When interruptions on checklists occur before engine start, and are caused by one flight crewmember vacating an assigned flight deck duty station the flight crew must verify the accomplishment of all of the checklist items that have been accomplished up to the point where the current checklist was interrupted. 
If the verification check reveals that any switch, control handle, knob, or lever is not in the position prescribed, then the full procedures, including any associated checks for the particular checklist item(s) must be re-accomplished.

In the event that the flight deck is completely vacated prior to engine start but subsequent to completion of the above pre-flight checklists the PIC will insure that said preflight checklists are re-accomplished prior to engine start. This procedure will preclude the possibility of the inadvertent placement of aircraft switches or system components by persons other than the flight crew.

Ops Manual 4.21.2
 


Altitude readings on the barometric altimeter are based on:  
 
  QNH.  
     FSG aircraft shall be operated according to the barometric altimeter readings of flight level [FL] or of altitude, whichever applies. FL readings are associated with the altimeter standard pressure setting [1013.2 hPa/29.92 in Hg]. Altitude readings are based on QNH. 
The altimeter subscales can be set to either hectopascals or inches, as appropriate.

For operations in areas with metric altitude/FL assignments, refer to the Jeppesen Flight Guide.

BEFORE TAKEOFF:

The actual QNH shall be set on all altimeters. The altimeters must be checked within the following tolerances for serviceability:

AIRPORT ELEVATION ALTIMETER READING DIFFERENCE 
Sea Level - 3,500 ft. +/- 80 ft. 
3,500 ft. - 4,000 ft .  +/- 115 ft. 
4,000 ft. - 5,000 ft.  +/- 125 ft. 
5,000 ft. - 6,000 ft. +/- 135 ft. 

DURING FLIGHT:

After each resetting of the altimeters, the respective reading must be compared to ensure correct altimeter sub scale setting has been used and continued serviceability of the altimeters.

Ops Manual 4.22
 


The PIC and/or SIC shall become familiar with all available information required for the safe operation of that flight, if they have not flown over that route within the past:  
  90 days.  
     In accordance with FAR 135.299(c), each pilot who has not flown over a route or into an airport within the preceding ninety [90] days will familiarize himself with the route and/or airport prior to flight. This is achieved by reviewing maps, charts, approach plates, terrain features, obstacles, airport layout and all other available material. 
Ops Manual 4.24

 


How often must a pilot complete an instrument check ride?  
  Every 6 months.  
     All pilots will assure that their recurrent training is accomplished on or before the due date and within the grace period provisions.

Instrument check ride: Every 6 months.

Route check ride: Every 12 months.

Competency check ride: Every 12 months.

If a pilot is authorized to use an autopilot system in place of a second pilot, he must demonstrate his competence under IFR conditions without a second pilot per FAR 135.105.

Ops Manual 4.24.7 & 4.25
 


Can time spent flying as a passenger on an airline to get to or from a revenue flight assignment be counted as rest time?  
 
  No.  
 
     The DO may assign a flight crewmember and a flight crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time only when the applicable requirements of 135.263/135.267/135.269/135.273 are met. 
The DO will not assign any flight crewmember to any duty during any required rest period.

Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that FSG requires of a flight crewmember and provides to transport the crewmember to an airport at which he is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which he was relieved from duty to return to his home base, is not considered part of a rest period.

Ops Manual 4.28.2
 


What is the maximum number of flight hours a flight crewmember may accrue in any calendar quarter?  
  500 hrs.  
     The DO will not assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one or two pilot crew if that crewmember’s total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed: 
500 hrs. in any calendar quarter. 
800 hrs. in any two consecutive calendar quarters. 
1,400 hrs. in any calendar year. 
Ops Manual 4.28.3

 


What are the general flight and duty time limitations for two pilot operations? Within the 24 hour period preceding the scheduled completion of the duty assignment, time may not exceed:  
  Flight Time: 10 hrs max Duty Time: 14 hrs max Required Rest: 10 consecutive hrs.  
     Except as provided in the paragraph below, during any 24 consecutive hrs. the total flight time of the assigned flight when added to any other commercial flying by that flight crewmember may not exceed: 
8 hrs. for a flight crew consisting of 1 pilot or, 
10 hrs. for a flight crew consisting of 2 pilots. 
A flight crewmember’s flight time may exceed the flight time limits of the paragraph above, if the assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hrs. and: 
If this duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hrs. of rest. 
If flight time is assigned during this period, that total flight time when added to any other commercial flying by the flight crewmember may not exceed: 
8 hrs. for a flight crew consisting of 1 pilot or, 
10 hrs. for a flight crew consisting of 2 pilots and, 
If the combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hrs. 


Ops Manual 4.28.3
 


If a pilot has exceeded his daily flight time limits due to hazardous weather conditions by 45 minutes, how much consecutive rest time will he receive?  
  12 consecutive hrs.  
     The DO will ensure that each assignment under this section must provide for at least 10 consecutive hrs. of rest during the 24-hr. period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment. 
When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight time limitations in this section, because of circumstances beyond the control of FSG or the flight crewmember [such as adverse weather conditions], that flight crewmember must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least:

1) 11 consecutive hrs. of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes.

2) 12 consecutive hrs. of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 60 minutes and,

3) 16 consecutive hrs. of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes.

FSG must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hrs. each per calendar quarter. Pilots who serve under part 135 of the FARs must comply with the requirements of the regulation in which they are going to operate. EXAMPLE: A pilot has served in commercial flying duties under the less restrictive requirements of FAR 91. Before operating in FAR 135 ops, the pilot must first meet the rest requirements of the appropriate part. Additionally, the pilot’s flight time in all commercial flying must fall within the guidelines of FAR 135 as appropriate before he may accept any duty under those parts. This also applies to pilots who switch between FAR 135 ops.

Ops Manual 4.28.3

 


If an in-flight fuel check reveals that the expected fuel remaining on arrival at the destination will be less than the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel the PIC will:  
 
  Assess and take into account the traffic, operational and meteorological conditions prevailing and expected at the destination airport.  
 
  Assess and take into account the traffic, operational and meteorological conditions prevailing and expected at the destination alternate airport.  
 
  Assess and take into account the traffic, operational and meteorological conditions prevailing and expected along the diversion route to the alternate airport.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     If an in-flight fuel check reveals that the expected fuel remaining on arrival at the destination will be less than the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel the PIC will: 
Assess and take into account the traffic, operational and meteorological conditions prevailing and expected at the destination airport and, 
Similarly, along the diversion route to the alternate airport and, 
Similarly, at the destination alternate airport. 
When deciding whether to proceed to the destination airport or to divert, en-route, so to land with not less than final fuel reserve and alternate fuel, the PIC should assess all relevant functions that could affect the flight. 
If an in-flight fuel check reveals that on a flight to an isolated destination aerodrome planned in accordance with this manual and the expected fuel remaining at the point of last possible diversion is less than the sum of: 
Fuel to divert to an alternate airport selected. 
Contingency fuel and, 
Final reserve fuel. 

The PIC will either: 

Divert or; 
Continue to the destination provided that 2 separate runways are available at the destination and the expected weather conditions at the destination comply with those specified for planning. 

The PIC will declare an emergency when the actual usable fuel on board is less than final reserve fuel.

Ops Manual 4.29.2
 


TCAS can only issue RA’s if the intruder aircraft is transponder equipped and has altitude reporting.  
 
  True.  
     When an aircraft deviates from its clearance in response to a Resolution Advisory [RA] on the TCAS II, ATC is still responsible to provide assistance, but not separation, to the deviating aircraft as requested until: 
The pilot informs ATC that the RA conflict is clear and, 
The aircraft has returned to the previously assigned altitude or, 
Alternate instructions have been issued and acknowledged. 
Controllers will not knowingly issue instructions that are contrary to RA guidance when they are aware that a TCAS maneuver is in progress. ATC will, when requested by flight crew, provide separation from TCAS-observed traffic and assistance in returning to the assigned clearance, if appropriate. 
Traffic Advisories [TA] draws the pilots’ attention to the visual display to assist in visual acquisition of the intruder.

TCAS can only issue RA’s if the intruder aircraft is transponder equipped and has altitude reporting.

Ops Manual 4.30.3, 4 & 5

 


When TCAS is configured to Terminal Area the range should be set at:  
  5-6 NM.  
     It is important to understand how to configure TCAS to provide maximum benefit from the information available. An excessive number of targets displayed, especially in the terminal area, can make it difficult to interpret the information being provided. Proper setting of the display will decrease clutter and provide more useful information on surrounding traffic. 
LOW ALTITUDE/LOCAL AREA: In this flight regime, a shorter horizontal range should be selected e.g., 10 NM range. Altitude volume should be set to Normal 

[+/- 2700 feet]. If multiple TCAS displays are available, one of the displays can be placed in the 5-6 NM range for a more rapid interpretation of TAs and RAs.

TERMINAL AREA: All TCAS displays should be set in the 5-6 NM range and the Normal altitude volume [+/- 2700 feet]. This range provides adequate distance to see other traffic, especially at uncontrolled airports, that may be on an opposite downwind pattern entry as well as keeping the display decluttered so as to ease in traffic interpretation. If the specific installation is capable of removing “Other Traffic” from the display, this option may be used.

Ops Manual 4.30.6

 


When responding to an RA, your climb or descent will normally be:  
  1,500 FPM.  
 
     Corrective RA’s can be distinguished from preventative RA’s by the presence of the green “fly-to” arc [band] on the vertical speed indicator. In essence, the corrective RA requires the crew to alter the aircraft’s existing vertical rate. A preventative RA will only tell you where not to go, as shown by the red only arc [band] on the vertical speed indicator. Preventative RA’s can be issued while the aircraft is in a climb or descent. 
NOTE: If at any time during the encounter there is a deviation from the vertical flight path indicated by TCAS, the PNF shall immediately advise the PF.

Satisfy RA’s, using prompt, positive control inputs in the direction and with the magnitude TCAS advises [normally 1,500 FPM climb or descent is all that is required]. For TCAS to provide safe vertical separation, initial vertical speed response is expected within 5 seconds of when the RA is first displayed. Excursions from assigned altitude, when responding to an RA, typically should be no more than 300-500 ft. to satisfy the conflict. Vertical speed responses should be made to avoid red arcs or outlined pitch avoidance areas, and, if applicable, to accurately fly the green arc or outlined pitch guidance area. Excessive responses to TCAS RA’s are inappropriate and may increase interference with other traffic.

Ops Manual 4.32.3

 


 If a TCAS RA requires maneuvering contrary to “right-of-way rules,” “cloud clearance” rules for VFR flight, IFR, or other such criteria, FSG pilots ar expected to follow FAR regulations.  
 
  False.  
     
     Since TCAS tracks all transponder-equipped aircraft in the vicinity, responding to an RA from an intruder assures a safe avoidance maneuver from that intruder and from other Mode C-equipped aircraft. If a TCAS RA requires maneuvering contrary to “right-of-way rules,” “cloud clearance” rules for visual flight rules [VFR] flight, instrument flight rules [IFR], or other such criteria, FSG pilots are expected to follow the TCAS RA’s to resolve the immediate traffic conflict. Deviations from rules or clearances should be kept to the minimum necessary to satisfy a TCAS RA. If a TCAS RA response requires deviation from an ATC clearance, expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved or the TCAS message “clear of conflict” is heard, or follow any subsequent change to clearance as advised by ATC. Unless required due to other circumstances, reports in compliance with FAR 91.123 regarding “emergency deviation from an ATC clearance” are not necessary solely resulting from a TCAS maneuver. 
Ops Manual 4.32.4

 


When TCAS issues a RA, what aircraft are considered.  
 
  All aircraft.  
 
     It is important to note that all aircraft are considered when TCAS issues an RA. The RA will not “fly” you into another aircraft. Additionally, the intruder aircraft may also be TCAS-and Mode S-equipped, causing a coordinated RA maneuver by both aircraft. Therefore, it is extremely important that you NEVER maneuver opposite to an RA or to disregard a displayed RA. In general, a “direction opposite” is when any change to the aircraft’s vertical speed would place the VSI needle in the red arc [band] or if it is already within the arc [band], cause it to move away from the green “fly-to” arc [band]. 
Generally, a weakening of the RA [a “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” or “MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED” message] will signal that the appropriate separation has been achieved [400-700 feet] and the aircraft can begin to return to the assigned altitude. Pilots are reminded that attention to the RA display and prompt reaction to the weakened RA will minimize altitude excursions and potential disruption to ATC. This will allow for proper TCAS-to-TCAS resolution of encounters and not exacerbate or cause a “reversal” or “crossing” message.

Ops Manual 4.32.5 & 6



What is the pilot's action when configured for landing and he receives a RA?  
 
  A normal go-around should be initiated.  
     An aircraft configured for landing may not be able to meet TCAS RA climb requirements; therefore, if an RA is received, a normal go-around should be initiated including the appropriate power increase and configuration changes. Initiating the go-around procedure for a climb RA does not mandate a missed approach. It is intended to assure that the airplane is properly configured for the expected maneuver. In most cases, the TCAS event will be resolved with only a minor deviation to the intended flight path and sufficient time and altitude will exist to recover safely to the desired flight path. Descending rapidly to capture the glides slope or descending at a high rate to the runway may trigger an unnecessary RA against traffic in the airport area. 
Ops Manual 4.32.7
  


When landing from 7,000 ft. MSL at ISA of 60 degrees F, what should be selected on the TCAS?  
 
  TA only.  
 
     All FSG aircraft shall operate TCAS in the TA/RA mode except when deselected by the PF, as described below. If/when the PF elects to operate in the TA ONLY mode, he or she shall brief the PNF of the intended change in mode prior to its selection. 
The TA ONLY mode may be selected during approach or departure when operating:

In visual conditions, when flying in close proximity to other aircraft. 
In instrument or visual conditions, during approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. 
During takeoff toward known nearby traffic which is in visual contact and which would cause an unwanted RA during initial climb, 
In the event of particular in-flight failures, as specified by the aircraft AFM or MEL, During takeoffs or landings outside of the nominal “TCAS referenced performance” envelope for RA’s, as designated by the aircraft AFM [“TCAS reference performance” for RA’s is typically attainable during takeoffs and landings at airports within the envelope of ISA 50 F, sea level to 5,300 ft. MSL]. When takeoffs or landings are made outside of this envelope, use of ‘TA ONLY’ may be appropriate during the limited time period when ‘TCAS reference performance’ cannot be achieved. This typically occurs when the aircraft is at low speed in a specified limiting configuration during takeoff or landing at “hot day” high altitude airports [e.g., single engine or Mexico City, La Paz operations etc.]. 
It Is highly recommended that FSG pilots use TCAS to observe/locate potential traffic conflicts prior to takeoff. 
Ops Manual 4.32.8

 


Pilots will readback all ATC clearance/instructions accompanied by:  
 
  Aircraft identification.  
 
     Pilots of aircraft should read back those parts of ATC clearances or instructions containing altitude assignments or vectors, as a means of mutual verification. The read back of the “numbers” serves as a double check between pilots and controllers, and as such, it is an invaluable aid in reducing the kinds of communications errors that occur when a number is either “misheard” or is incorrect. 
Accompany all read-backs/acknowledgements with the aircraft identification. This is the only way that controllers can determine that the correct aircraft received the clearance/instruction. The requirement to include aircraft identification in all read backs/acknowledgements becomes more important as frequency congestion increase and when aircraft with similar call signs are on the same frequency.

Ops Manual 4.35.3

 


In European procedures if a HF radio is not required by ATC, it should be tuned at all times to:  
  Berna Radio.  
     In European procedures, if an HF radio is not required for ATC purposes, it should be tuned at all times to the Berna Radio. This will enable the company to contact a company aircraft in flight on matters of urgency. A second HF radio should be tuned to Stockholm Radio. 
Communications with handling agents or the company regarding delays or other important matters should be made by phone patch using Berna Radio on the appropriate HF frequency.

Portishead Radio provides a listening watch on 131.62 MHz as well as HF frequencies. This facility should allow aircraft within 200 nm to pass messages without having to use HF.

When operating over the oceans or sparsely inhabited areas where ATC communication is normally by HF [or extended range VHF], a listening watch must also be maintained on the emergency VHF frequency of 121.5 MHz.

Ops Manual 4.35.5

 


When the service is available, what is the purpose of monitoring the localizer frequency aurally in ILS approaches?  
 
  To receive PAR advisories.  
     The PF is responsible for the choice and maximum use of radio facilities to be made on all departures and approaches [VOR, ILS, FMS or IRS]. When practical, on ILS approaches, both VHF navigation receivers should be tuned to the ILS frequency. If an FMS is used as one of the sources then the accuracy of the system must always be checked against raw data before descending below MSA or into IMC particularly at night. 
The marker beacon switches on the pilot’s jack boxes should be selected so as to receive the beacon aurally, as well as visually. A marker has not been reached until both the aural and light signals have been received in the flight deck.

When the service is available, the localizer frequency should be monitored aurally in ILS approaches to receive Precision Approach Radar [PAR] advisories.

The aircraft radar will normally be on “stand-by” for all takeoffs and landings. When taking off during inclement weather or when terrain features produce a readable echo, which would be of assistance in determining position, the radar should be “on” and tuned prior to take-off. It must not be on during fueling and when the aircraft is at the passenger gate.

Ops Manual 4.35.9
 


What is the ILS localizer beam range available for guidance?  
  25 NMs.  
     The ILS localizer beam width and range available for guidance is of the order of 10 degrees on either side of the centerline, and 25 nm’s respectively. Within 30 degrees on either side of this sector, coverage is only provided to the extent that a full-scale deflection to the correct side is guaranteed. The ILS glide path azimuth coverage sector width is 8 degrees on either side of the centerline and extends to at least 10 nm. The elevation sector available for guidance ranges from at least 2 degrees above to 1.5 degrees below the nominal glide path, below which full-scale fly-up deflection is guaranteed. 
Aberrations affecting these design features, ranging from multi-path interference to fluctuations due to reflections from taxiing aircraft and from antenna over-flights may still occur within the ILS coverage sector, particularly in weather where the ILS sensitive and critical areas are not enforced.

Ops Manual 4.35.11
 


How often will flight plans activated in the navigation system be checked by both pilots?  
  Waypoint by waypoint.  
 
     As navigational errors carry a significant risk potential, flight plans activated in the navigation system shall be checked by both pilots, waypoint by waypoint, against the flight plan. The FMS/IRS is also suitable and authorized for pre-flight planning, when an operational flight plan is not available, and for in-flight re-planning. All available means shall be used to crosscheck the retrieved data. 
The PF is responsible for the choice of navigation aids [if tuning is manual] and for the navigation system configuration. Both pilots must confirm all changes.

Both pilots must identify all radio-aids used for departure and approach. In cruise and above MSA, pilots should identify all radio-aids used for tracking.

Any discrepancies must be brought to the attention of the other pilot.

If there is a discrepancy between the FMS/IRS computed position and the position shown by conventional navigational instruments, then the flight must proceed using conventional radio navigation.

Ops Manual 4.36.1 & 2
 


Before descent below Minimum Safe Altitude [MSA], the pilot must fix the position of the aircraft by:  
  Two independent navigational sources.  
 
     Before descent below Minimum Safe Altitude [MSA], it is necessary to fix the position of the aircraft by 2 independent navigational sources. If an FMS is used as one of those sources then its accuracy must always be checked against raw data before descent below MSA in IMC or at night. For final approach, one pilot must be displaying raw data. 
ILS facilities of all categories have been known to produce false beams outside of their coverage sectors due to radiation aberrations. Such beams are subject to being captured without a warning flag. In order to ensure proper localizer beam capture, the ILS mode shall not be armed until the location of the beam has been confirmed by independent means [navigation aids, navigation system with VHF navigation aids update] and the capture shall be monitored by the same means.

A DME distance check at glide slope intercept shall be performed whenever possible. In addition, an altitude check shall be performed at the outer marker position or final approach fix.

Where an NDB approach is made using instruments that would not indicate a failure of the NDB, the PNF must continuously monitor the identification signal so that a failure will be detected by loss of the signal. Where an NDB forms part of a missed approach, it should be selected and identified in the No. 2 ADF, the outer marker being set on No. 1 ADF.

Ops Manual 4.36.4
 



How do you find the minimum total hydroplaning speed?  
 
  Nine times the square root of the tire inflation psi.  
     The most commonly discussed occurrence is hydroplaning due to fluid density pressures. Tests have confirmed that this occurs when the standing water on a wet runway is not displaced from under the tire at a rate fast enough to allow the tire to make contact over its complete footprint area. The tires ride on a wedge or film of water over part of the footprint area. This partial hydroplaning is due to hydrodynamic pressures created by the change in momentum of the water as the tire displaces it. 
As speed increases to where the tire is fully detached from the ground surface, the drag [due to fluid displacement by the tire] peaks and spin-down occurs or wheel rotation stops, along with loss of braking action. This speed is considered the minimum total hydroplaning speed and has been determined to be primarily a function of tire inflation pressure. Comparison of test data for a variety of aircraft and automotive tires led to derivation of a simplified formula for predicting total hydroplaning speed. This applies only to smooth or closed-pattern-tread tires that do not allow escape paths for water or to rib-tread tires where the fluid depth on the runway exceeds the groove depths in the tread of the tires. The equation for this formula is:

Minimum total hydroplaning speed [knots] – 9 times the square root of tire inflation pressure [psi]. 
Ops Manual 4.38.1
 


Which of the following are recommended techniques for wet runway landing?  
 
  Keep the aircraft centerline aligned with the runway centerline.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  If a crosswind exists, apply lateral wheel control into the wind.  
 
  Apply forward column pressure as soon as the nose wheel is on the runway.  
     RECOMMENDED TECHNIQUE FOR WET RUNWAY LANDING 
Do not exceed calculated approach speeds + wind additives at the runway threshold. 
Establish and maintain a stabilized approach. 
Be prepared to go-around from the threshold. 
Do not allow the aircraft to drift during flare. 
With the anti-skid system ARMED, use full flaps/landing slats to permit the minimum approach speed. 
Do not attempt to hold the aircraft off to make a “grease job” – make a firm touchdown. 
At touchdown, confirm automatic spoiler deployment; if they delay, deploy them manually. 
Initiate nose lowering and after having determined spoiler extension, apply braking, as required. 
After nose wheel touchdown, consistent with tracking and other runway factors, apply the maximum reverse thrust. 
If a crosswind exists, apply lateral wheel control into the wind. 
Keep the aircraft centerline aligned with the runway centerline. 
Apply forward column pressure as soon as the nose wheel is on the runway. 
Increase weight on the nose wheel for improved steering effectiveness. Do not apply excessive forward column pressure because the down elevator will unload [to some extent the main wheels and decrease braking]. 
When the aircraft is in a skid, align the aircraft with the runway centerline if you can. Get off the brakes to maximize cornering capability and bring aircraft back to runway center. If you are in a crab and cannot align aircraft centerline with runway centerline and attempted cornering is not effective, get out of reverse thrust to eliminate reverse thrust component side forces tending to push the aircraft off the side of the runway. 
Ops Manual 4.38.5
 


"MU" is:  
  A measurement of the slipperiness of the runway surface, ranging from 0 to 100 (0 = the most slippery).  
     Runway braking action is reported by either a runway condition reading [RCR] at military fields or a numerical coding for civil fields. Most US airports located in the snow belt have runway friction measuring devices that are used to determine the slipperiness of runways contaminated with compacted snow and ice. When measurements with these devices are taken, they should be provided to flight crews through ATC, company dispatch or Automatic Terminal Information System [ATIS]. The FAA and industry have agreed to pursue a requirement for air carrier airports to measure runway friction during winter operations. Pilots will be frequently advised of runway friction values obtained from FAA approved friction measuring devices specifically designed for that purpose. Pilots need to understand the intended use of the friction numbers and their limitations in order to maximize the safety of takeoffs and landings during winter operations. 
The friction numbers reported by ATC, denoted by the Greek letter MU [pronounced ‘mew’], provide a measure of the slipperiness of the runway surface. MU values range from 0-100, where zero is the lowest friction value and 100 is the theoretical maximum friction value obtainable. Only MU numbers of 40 and lower are reported during winter operations by ATC because a MU value of approximately 40 is where braking performance begins to deteriorate and directional control becomes difficult. As MU values decrease below 40, correspondingly degraded braking performance and more difficulty in maintaining directional control will result.

Ops Manual 4.38.6
 


The accelerate-stop and landing performance data provided in AFM are presented in terms of:  
 
  A dry runway.  
     The accelerate-stop and landing performance data provided in AFM are not presented in terms of the reported MU value. The AFM accelerate-stop and landing distances are based on a dry runway. For FAR 135 operations involving turbine powered transport category airplanes, the landing limitations require the minimum allowable landing distance to be increased by 15% when the runway is wet or slippery. There is no equivalent requirement regarding accelerate-stop distances when the runway is wet or slippery. 
All company aircraft landing or departing military airports are restricted to RCR of 6 or greater. The RCR is a measure of runway condition and compares with the ICAO condition reporting. Decelerometer reading provided by tower operators, approach control, and contained within weather sequence reports, indicate the runway condition in a numerical sequence from 0-25.

Ops Manual 4.38.8
 


A Rejected Takeoff [RTO] is acceptable up to what speed?  
 
  80 kts.  
     The procedure with respect to rejected takeoffs [RTO] only addresses the GO/NO GO decision-making. Refer to your AFM for specific duties and responsibilities. 
The FSG procedure is for the PIC to make the decision to reject. This is the case even when the SIC is the PF. This ensures that duties and responsibilities are absolutely clear so that crewmembers know what is expected of them.

RTO’s are divided into 2 regimes. Low speed regime is initiated at less than 80 kts. High speed regime at greater than 80 kts. At speeds lower than 80 kts., an RTO for any reason is acceptable. After reaching 80 kts., the only reason to abort is a problem that leads you to question whether the airplane can be flown. At or after V1, unless you have a malfunction, which affects your ability to control or fly the airplane, DO NOT ABORT. You are committed to fly and handle the problem inflight. Statistics show that the chances of emerging unscathed from a RTO made after V1 are small.

It is essential that all crewmembers communicate effectively on takeoff roll. If anything out of the normal is observed, call it out loudly and clearly. State what you see in a minimum of words. Make sure that the words you choose transmit the proper message. “Loss of Electrical Power”, is clearly an electrical problem versus “Loss of Power”, which could be electrical or an engine. SIC’s should not use the words “Reject” or “Abort” unless they are confirming their understanding of what the PIC has commanded.

Ops Manual 4.39
 


The approach briefing will consist of:  
 
  Minimum altitudes.  
 
  Reversing technique intended.  
 
  Terrain.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     Prior to every approach, IFR or VFR, the PF will brief the PNF. The degree of detail may vary according to the weather conditions, the experience of the non-flying pilot, condition of the aircraft, etc., but each approach briefing, regardless of how ideal the conditions, will cover at least the following subjects: 
Terrain 
Minimum altitudes 
Approach plates 
Reversing technique intended 
Go around procedure 
The recommended time to give the approach briefing, or as much of the briefing as possible, is prior to commencing descent when the crew is relatively free from absorbing duties, rather than during the approach phase when closer pilot attention to flying the aircraft is required.

Ops Manual 4.41.5
 


Turns during entry and while holding should be at what bank angle when using the Flight Director?  
 
  25 degrees of bank.  
     When approaching a clearance limit with no chartered holding pattern and holding instructions have not been issued, the pilot should ask ATC for holding instructions. If the pilot is unable to obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix and a holding pattern is charted, the pilot should hold in the charted holding pattern. If no holding pattern is charted, the pilot should hold in a standard pattern on the course on which the fix was approached. The pilot should request further clearance as soon as possible. 
Protected holding airspace is based on using specified speeds, entry procedures, and timing. These should be adhered to unless a specific clearance to operate otherwise is obtained.

Turns during entry and while holding should be at 30 degrees of bank [25 degrees when using a flight director] or 3 degrees per second; whichever requires the least bank angle.

When holding at a VOR, the outbound turn should begin at the first complete reversal of the to/from indicator.

Thrust should be set to maintain the holding speed during the turn, accepting the excess speed that develops during level flight.

Ops Manual 4.43.3
 


What is the maximum holding airspeed [KIAS] for altitudes of domestic flights MHA-6,000 MSL?  
 
Ops Manual 4.46.2
   200.  
     The maximum holding speeds for turbojet aircraft are: 

ALTITUDE [FEET MSL] MAXIMUM SPEED [KIAS] 
Domestic-MHA through 6,000 200 
Domestic-Above 6,000-14,000 230 [see note] 
Domestic-Above 14,000 265 
Int’l [France]-MHA thru 14,000 230 [220] 
Int’l-Above 14,000-20,000 [France-Above 24,000-34,000] 240 
Int’l-Above 20,000-34,000 [France-Above 24,000-34,000] 265 
Int’l-Above 34,000 Mach .83 

NOTE: For some domestic holding patterns, a holding airspeed limit of 210 kts. is required to provide the guaranteed protected airspace. These holding patterns will be depicted on aeronautical charts with “210K” in the center. Additionally, ATC will advise pilots of the maximum airspeed a holding pattern airspace area will protect. EXAMPLE: “Maximum holding airspeed is two one zero knots.”

Ops Manual 4.44

 


How does the pilot determine the holding fuel available?  
  Subtracting the fuel required from the fuel on board.  
     To compute the maximum holding time available, determine the fuel required by adding the following: 
Fuel burn from present position to destination. 
Fuel burn to the alternate. 
FAA reserve fuel, plus any required variable reserve. 
Any additional anticipated delays or other factors that will increase the minimum fuel requirement. 
Determine the holding fuel available by subtracting the fuel required from the fuel on board.

Divide the holding fuel available by the fuel consumption rate to determine the maximum holding time.

The PIC has the final decision on how long the flight will hold at a particular fix. The flight should normally land with at least the FAA minimum reserve fuel onboard. The FAA minimum reserve fuel should not be considered usable for holding.



A stabilized approach requires maintaining a descent rate of:  
  Less than 1,000 fpm.  
     A stabilized approach requires the maintaining of a stable speed [Vref to Vref +20], descent rate [<1,000 FPM], vertical flight path [correct flight path] and configuration [landing]. Specifically, it means that the aircraft must be in an approved landing configuration [including circling configuration, if appropriate], it must maintain the proper approach speed and must be established on the proper flight path before descending below the “minimum stabilized approach height” specified for the operation being conducted. Only small changes in pitch and heading should be required to maintain this type of approach. The stabilized approach concept should be implemented into all approach ops and all approach profiles should be based upon achieving a stabilized approach. Configuration changes at low altitude are limited to those changes that can be easily accommodated without adversely affecting pilot workload. All briefings and checklists should be accomplished prior to the final approach segment. 
Ops Manual 4.50.1
 


A stablized approach under VFR must be established before descending below:  
 
  500 ft. above the airport elevation.  
     A stabilized approach must be established before descending below the following minimum stabilized approach heights: 
500 ft. above the airport elevation during VFR or visual approaches and during straight-in instrument approaches in VFR weather conditions. 
MDA or 500 ft. above airport elevation, whichever is lower, if a circling maneuver is to be conducted after completing an instrument approach. 
1,000 feet above the airport or TDZ elevation during any straight-in instrument approach in instrument flight conditions. 
1,000 ft. above the airport during contact approaches. 
If a stabilized approach cannot be achieved before descending below the above minimum stabilized approach heights, immediate action will be taken to execute a missed approach or go-around. A go-around is required if the aircraft becomes destabilized during the approach. Therefore if these parameters are not met they will be considered as mandatory go around gates.

Ops Man 4.50.1.4
 


What is the normal glide path angle for approaches using VASI?  
  3 degrees.  
     APPROACHES USING VASI 
Two-bar VASI installations provide on visual glide path, which is normally set at 3 degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally ¼ degrees higher.

This higher glide path is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide sufficient threshold crossing height. Although normal glide path angles are 3 degrees, performance aircraft are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5 degrees may cause an increase in runway length required for landing and rollout.

Use of VASI, when available, is mandatory [IFR or VFR].

Ops Manual 4.52
 


What is the most complex, capable and flexible component of the air transport system?  
 
  The pilot.  
 
     The word “automation” refers to the replacement of human function, either manual or cognitive, with a machine function. This definition applies to all levels of automation in all aircraft flown by FSG. The purpose of automation is to aid the pilot in doing his or her job. 
The pilot is the most complex, capable and flexible component of the air transport system, and as such is best suited to determine the optimal use of resources in any given situation. Pilots must be proficient in operating their aircraft at all levels of automation. They must be knowledgeable in the selection of the appropriate degree of automation, and must have the skills needed to move from one level of automation to another.

Automation should be used at the level most appropriate to enhance the priorities of safety, passenger comfort and efficiency. In order to achieve the above priorities, all training programs, procedures, checklists and day-to-day operations should be in accordance with this statement of automation philosophy.

Ops Manual 4.55
 



Where immediate, decisive, and correct control of aircraft path is required, what level of automation should be used?  
 
  Level One.  
     LEVEL ONE AUTOMATION 
Where immediate, decisive, and correct control of aircraft path is required, the lowest level of automation—hand-flying without flight director guidance—will be necessary. Such instances would include escape or avoidance maneuvers and recovery from upset or unusual attitudes. With the exception of visual approaches and deliberate decisions to maintain flying proficiency, this is essentially a non-normal operation for flight guidance of FMS-generation aircraft. It should be considered a transitory mode used when the pilot perceives the aircraft is not responding to urgent aircraft demands. The pilot can establish a higher level of automation as soon as conditions permit.

When used with flight director guidance, hand flying is the primary takeoff and departure mode. It is also the primary mode for landings.

Where short-range tactical planning is needed [i.e., radar vectors for separation or course intercept, short-range speed or climb rate control, etc.], Mode Control or Flight Guidance inputs may be most effective. This level should be used predominantly in the terminal environment when responding to clearance changes and restrictions, including in-close approach/runway changes.

Ops Manual 4.56.1
 


What is the primary mode used for takeoff, initial departure and landings?  
 
  Level Two.  
     LEVEL TWO AUTOMATION: 
Aircraft is being hand-flown with basic flight director guidance. This is the primary mode use for takeoff, initial departure and landings.

For a variety of reasons, displayed FMS legs making up a departure, arrival, or approach procedures may not correspond with charted fix names, bearings, or radials even though the database is designed to follow the same ground track. However, from time to time, pilots have encountered situations where the FMS did not fly a procedure as defined by radio navigation or in compliance with ATC expectations. Therefore, pilots must brief and cross-check charted procedures against FMS data to ensure they have selected the correct procedure and will comply with their clearance.

Before departure, thoroughly review your assigned departure and cross-check the waypoints obtained with your desired course. If you select or build a transition, verify between pilots that it matches your clearance and produces the desired track. Ask ATC for clarification if any conflict exists.

Before arriving in the terminal area, thoroughly brief the arrival and approach you expect to fly and cross-check fixes presented by the FMS against fixes depicted on the approach chart. Should the runway or approach change and you wish to use the FMS for the new approach, that same level of cross-check is essential. If time constraints or circumstances prevent your cross-check, decline the clearance or tune and identify radio aids to navigation and fly the approach in a lower level of automation.

Ops Manual 4.56.2
 


In Level Three automation except where prohibited by the AFM, pilots may accomplish a SID and its transitions, navigate enroute, and accomplish a STAR and its transitions to the initial approach fix solely by FMS navigation, including approaches.  
  False.  
     LEVEL THREE AUTOMATION 
Except for those aircraft designed to meet Required Navigation Performance [RNP] for the Approach Phase, Flight Management Systems are certified for enroute and terminal navigation, but not for approaches. Except where prohibited by the AFM, pilots may accomplish a SID and its transitions, navigate enroute, and accomplish a STAR and its transitions to the initial approach fix solely by FMS navigation, but not approaches.

Except for published FMS, GPS and RNAV instrument approach procedures, approaches are flown relative to ground-based NAVAIDs. For all other approaches, prior to the initial approach fix, one pilot must tune [identify auto tune], identify and monitor [on a CDI display, where available] the navaids that define the approach. These actions are necessary to ensure the path flown by the aircraft complies with the ground track required by the approach procedure. The function of the FMS and NAV display during and approach is to assist your situation awareness—not to fly the approach. Any discrepancy between the Nav Display or Flight Director based on FMS guidance and raw data from navaids defining the approach must be challenged and resolved immediately. Should the ground based signal be lost, the crew must abandon that approach if in instrument conditions. On all instrument approaches inside the final approach fix in IMC weather conditions, a go-around is required whenever unreliability or full scale deflection of the ground-based approach navaids is encountered. [NOTE: This paragraph describes what is necessary for the pilot to comply with FMS certification].

Ops Manual 4.56.3
 


What is the primary level of automation for nonterminal operatoins of advanced cockpit aircraft?  
 
  Level Four.  
     LEVEL FOUR AUTOMATION: 
Full use of automation in LNAV/VNAV ops. Flight director and autopilot are engaged. This is primary level of automation for nonterminal ops of advanced cockpit aircraft. FMS is used for the control of both lateral and vertical flight paths on a strategic basis. Great care must be taken to maintain situational awareness. Monitoring and mode awareness are critical.

Use of the highest levels of automation during terminal ops must be limited to situations permitting advance preparation, review of FMS programming and complete crew briefings. Level Four is not appropriate where significant changes to route or landing runway have been issued by ATC. In those situations, pilots should revert, at least temporarily, to lower levels of automation.

Ops Manual 4.56.4
 





Proper use of automation will reduce cockpit workload.  
 
     
 
  True.  
     
     LEVEL FOUR AUTOMATION: 
Whenever possible, avoid FMS/AFIS programming during critical phases of flight. Complete as much programming as possible during low workload phases. ATC clearance changes in the terminal area directly challenge this requirement.

A departure change during taxi for takeoff requires review of the assigned departure. If the FMS is to be used for navigation during the departure, pilots must cross-check the waypoints obtained with the desired course. However, pilots may choose to navigate the departure by ground-based navaids if update and cross-check of FMS moving map displays would distract from primary ground and flight duties.

While pilots must tune, identify and monitor all applicable approach navaids for every approach and landing, it is not necessary to update FMS moving map displays close-in to the landing airport where “heads down” data entry would distract from primary flight duties.

In closing, automation is provided to enhance safety, reduce pilot workload and improve operational capabilities. Automation should be used at the most appropriate level. Proper use of automation will reduce cockpit workload. Improper use will do just the opposite. Pilots should maintain proficiency in the use of all levels of automation. The selected level of automation should permit pilots to distribute comfortably maintain situational awareness.

Ops Manual 4.56.4
 


Company aircraft involved in 135 operations will be weighed how often?  
 
  Every 36 months.  
     No company aircraft to which FAR 135 applies may be utilized unless current empty weight and center of gravity have been established by the Chief Inspector by actual weighing of the aircraft within the previous 36 calendar months. The Chief Inspector is responsible to assure the aircraft weight and balance is current. This information is maintained with other required maintenance inspections by the Chief Inspector. 
The Chief Inspector makes available in each aircraft the current empty weight, basic operating weight [BOW], and center of gravity for the use of the flight crews. This information is located in the Aircraft Black Book that contains other company forms and documents.

The Chief Inspector ensures proper entry in logbooks and on an equipment change form each time there is a change in the weight and balance of each aircraft.

Ops Manual 4.1.1
 


What must the load manifest for 135 operations include?  
 
  Maximum allowable weight for that flight including environmental conditions, runway length, etc.  
 
  Registration number of the aircraft.  
 
  Identification of crewmembers and their crew position assignments.  
 
  All of the anwers are correct.  
     The PIC must ensure that weight and balance computations are completed prior to each takeoff. The results of those computations must be entered on the load manifest for FAR 135 ops. The load manifest for FAR 135 ops shall contain at least: 
The number of passengers. 
The total weight of the loaded aircraft. 
The maximum allowable weight for that flight taking into consideration such factors as environmental conditions, runway length, etc. 
The center of gravity limits at both takeoff and landing weights. 
The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft in both takeoff and landing conditions. 
The registration number of the aircraft or the company flight number. 
The departure and destination airport identifiers. 
The identification of crewmembers and their crew position assignments. 
All pilots will use the weight and balance procedures outlined in this manual and the AFM. The PIC is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is loaded within its weight and balance limitations and that the weight and balance control procedures as described in this manual are complied with.

Ops Manual 4.1.1
 


Where is the basic aircraft empty weight, empty weight CG and loading information found?  
 
  Aircraft Flight Manual.  
     The PIC is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is loaded within its weight and balance limitations and that the weight and balance control procedures as described in this manual are complied with. 
The basic aircraft empty weight, empty weight CG, useful load, loading information, graphs, tables, weight versus CG envelopes, are located in the AFM.

Prior to each takeoff the PIC will ensure that the load manifest has been completed. The preferred method of computing weight and balance for FAR 135 ops will be by the use of plotters and load manifests provided by American Aeronautics, Inc. The procedures for their use as described herein, are generic and apply to all aircraft with the American Aeronautics system. The procedures for individual aircraft will be taught as a part of initial and recurrent training.

In situations where the American Aeronautics system is not in place, i.e. a new aircraft coming on line, the tabular load manifest will be used. All pilots prior to takeoff or landing will assure by checking the AFM and the airport advisories, that the usable portion of the active runway is of adequate length for safe takeoff or landing, considering its takeoff weight and balance condition.

Ops Manual 4.1.1
 


Who establishes the datum of each aircraft?  
 
  The manufacturer.  
 
     ARM: Horizontal distance in inches from the reference datum line to the center of gravity of the item. The algebraic sign is (+) if measured aft of the datum, and minus (-) if measured forward of the datum. 
CENTER OF GRAVITY: Point about which an aircraft would balance if it were possible to suspend it at that point. It is the mass center of the aircraft or the theoretical point at which the entire weight of the aircraft is assumed to be concentrated. It may be expressed in percent of MAC [means aerodynamic chord] or in inches from the reference datum.

CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITS: The specified forward and aft points beyond which the CG must not be located during flight. These limits are indicated on pertinent aircraft specifications and meet the requirements of FARs.

CENTER OF GRAVITY RANGE: The distance between the forward and aft CG limits indicated on pertinent aircraft specifications.

DATUM: An imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements or arms are taken. The manufacturer establishes the datum. Once the datum has been selected, all moment arms and the location of permissible CG range must be taken with reference to that point.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 


What is the expendable load of an aircraft?  
 
  Fuel Load.  
 
     FUEL LOAD: Expendable part of the load of the aircraft. It includes only usable fuel, not fuel required to fill the lines or that which remains trapped in the tank sumps. 
LEMAC: Leading edge of the mean aerodynamic chord.

MOMENT: Product of weight of an item multiplied by its arm; moments are expressed in pound-inches [lb. in.]. Total moment is the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the distance between the datum and the CG.

MOMENT INDEX [or index]: Moment divided by a constant [such as 100, 1,000 or 10,000. The purpose of using a moment index is to simplify weight and balance computations of large aircraft where heavy items and long arms result in large, unmanageable numbers.

MEAN AERODYNAMIC CHORD [MAC]: Average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing. The MAC is specified for the aircraft by determining the average chord of an imaginary wing that has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual wing.

REDUCTION FACTOR: Constant which when divided into a moment results in an index. Reduction factors of 100, 1,000 or 10,000 are used to simplify weight and balance evaluation processes.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 


What is the standard weight for Jet fuel?  
 
  6.7 lbs./USG.  
 
     STANDARD WEIGHTS: Standard weights have been established for numerous items involved in weight and balance computations. Some of the standard weights are: 
Gasoline 6 lbs./USG 
Oil 7.5 lbs./USG 
Water 8.35 lbs./USG 
Jet fuel 6.7 lbs./USG 
STATION: Location in the aircraft that is identified by designating its distance in inches from the datum. The datum is, therefore, identified as station zero. The station and arm are usually identical. An item located at station +50 would have an arm of 50 inches.

USEFUL LOAD: Weight of the pilot, co-pilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel and drainable oil. It is the empty weight subtracted from the maximum allowable takeoff weight. This term applies to general aviation aircraft only.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 


Of what does the payload consist?  
  Weight of passengers, baggage and cargo.  
     BASIC OPERATING WEIGHT [BOW]: Weight of the aircraft, including the crew, ready for flight but without payload and fuel. 
EMPTY WEIGHT: The airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the aircraft. It includes optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, hydraulic fluid, unusable [residual] fuel, and undrainable [residual] oil.

MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT [MLW]: Maximum weight at which the aircraft may normally be landed. The maximum landing weight may be limited to a lesser weight when runway length or atmospheric conditions are adverse.

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT [MTW]: Maximum allowable weight at the start of the takeoff run. The aircraft may be loaded to a greater weight only to allow for fuel burnoff during ground operations. The takeoff weight for a particular flight may be limited to a lesser weight when runway length, atmospheric conditions or other variables are adverse.

MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE ZERO FUEL WEIGHT [MZFW]: Maximum weight authorized for the aircraft, not including fuel load. Zero fuel weight for each particular flight is the basic operating weight plus the payload.

RAMP OR TAXI WEIGHT: Maximum takeoff gross weight plus fuel to be burned during taxi and run-up.

PAYLOAD: Weight of passengers, baggage and cargo using either average weight units or actual weights.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 


Who is responsible to maintain current information regarding weight and balance for FSG aircraft?  
 
  Chief Inspector.  
     Seats, compartments, and other loading stations used should correspond with the instructions established for computing the weight and balance of the aircraft. Instructions should be prepared for crewmembers, cargo handlers, and other personnel concerned giving complete necessary information regarding distribution of passengers, cargo, fuel, and other items. Information relative maximum capacities and other pertinent limitations affecting the weight or balance of the aircraft should be included in these instructions. When it is possible by adverse distribution of passengers to exceed the approved CG limits of the aircraft, special instructions should be issued to the appropriate crewmembers so that the load distribution can be maintained within the approved limitation. A calibrated scale should be available for use when passenger, baggage, and cargo weights are otherwise undeterminable. 
The Chief Inspector is responsible to maintain current information regarding weight and balance data for all FSG aircraft. The weight and balance section, of the FSG Maintenance Manual contains aircraft weighing and weight and balance or equipment change procedures.

Ops Manual 4.3.1
 


In FAR 135 operations with an aircraft having 9 passengers or less, how many pounds are added for crew charts and supplies?  
 
  5 pounds.  
     PAX WEIGHTS FOR ALL 9 PAX OR LESS FAR 135 AIRCRAFT 
[FAR 135 ops only]

Actual pax weight will be used and may be determined by scale weighing or by asking each passenger their weight and adding 5 pounds for hand carried articles, whether or not such articles are actually carried.

Actual crewmembers’ weight plus 5 pounds for charts and supplies will also be used.

BAGGAGE WEIGHT FOR ALL 9 PAX OR LESS FAR 135 AIRCRAFT

[FAR 135 ops only]

Actual baggage weight will be used and may be determined by scale weighing. In the case of cargo, the actual weight of that cargo will be used.

PAX AND BAGGAGE WEIGHTS FOR ALL 10 OR MORE PAX TURBINE POWERED AIRCRAFT FAR 135

[FAR 135 Ops only]

The PIC will use either the AVERAGE WEIGHT method or ACTUAL WEIGHT method for determining passenger weights and baggage weights, provided only one method is used for any flight from origin to termination point. Crew baggage, if carried, will be considered along with pax baggage.

Ops Manual 4.3.2, 3 & 4
 


What are the standard weights for Crewmembers (flightcrew and cabin crew)?  
 
 
  185 pounds.  
     AVERAGE PASSENGER WEIGHT: May be used provided the APPROVED WEIGHT AND BALANCE PROGRAM, as specified in FSG’s Ops Specs, are complied with. FSG will use average passengers’ weights as follows: 

Adults - 185 lbs. 
Children - [2-12] - 80 pounds 
Children under 2 are considered "babes-in-arms". 
Average passenger weights are to be used for both Winter and Summer operations. 

ACTUAL PASSENGER WEIGHT: Used when a passenger load consists of athletic squads or other special groups that are larger than the U.S. AVERAGE. Actual passenger weight may be determined by scale weighing or by asking each passenger’s weight and adding 5 pounds for hand carried articles, whether or not such articles are actually carried. 

CREW WEIGHTS: An average weight of 185 pounds per crewmember may be used for crewmembers as set forth in the FSG Ops Specs. Actual crewmembers’ weight plus 5 pounds for charts and supplies may also be used. 

AVERAGE BAGGAGE WEIGHT: Used provided the APPROVED WEIGHT AND BALANCE PROGRAM, as specified in the FSG Ops Specs, are complied with. Average passenger baggage is to be computed at 25.0 lbs. per bag. 

ACTUAL BAGGAGE WEIGHT: Used if average baggage weight is not used and may be determined by scale weighing. In the case of cargo, the actual weight of that cargo will be used. 

Ops Manual 4.3.4
 


What is the preferred method of determining weight and balance information?  
 
  Graphical Load Manifest.  
     There are 2 types of Load Manifests used for aircraft under 135. There is a Tabular Load Manifest and a Graphical Load Manifest which is used with a Plotter. The Graphical Load Manifest is the preferred method of determining Weight and Balance information. The Tabular Load Manifest will be used in all other instances where the Graphical Load Manifest is not available. 
When a flight is departing a FSG facility, a copy of the Load Manifest will be left in the Load Manifest book at the facility and the other copy will be carried aboard the aircraft to the destination. If the departure is not from a FSG facility, both copies will be carried on the aircraft until it returns to a company facility. One copy will be filed in the Load Manifest Book, maintained by the Ops Manager where it will be kept on file for 30 days. The other copy may be discarded.

All pilots prior to takeoff or landing will assure by checking the AFM and the airport advisories, that the usable portion of the active runway is of adequate length for safe takeoff or landing, considering its takeoff weight and balance condition.

Ops Manual 4.3.4
 


Which of these items will be included on the Graphical Load Manifest?  
 
  Aircraft N number.  
     Use of the Graphical Load Manifest and Plotter will be the preferred method of determining weight and balance on FSG aircraft. The Graphical Load Manifest and Plotter are specific to each aircraft type. 
Completion of the Graphical Load Manifest form is as follows:

Enter the trip [quote] number and the leg number. 
Enter the departure and destination airports. 
Enter the aircraft N number. 
Enter the date. 
Enter the maximum allowable TOGW for the leg based on the runway, climb and landing weight limitations. 
Enter the maximum allowable LNDG WT for the leg. 
Enter the crew names and positions. 
Enter the fuel computations. 
Enter the Captain’s signature. 
Enter the number of passengers for the leg. 
Ops Manual 4.3.5
 


When is the Tabular Load Manifest used?  
 
 
  When no plotter or manifest is available for the aircraft.  
     The Tabular Load Manifest may be used to determine weight and balance and loading when no plotter or manifest is available for the aircraft. Completion of the form is as follows: 
A) Enter date of trip.

B) Enter aircraft registration number or flight number.

C) Enter aircraft type.

D) Enter name of PIC.

E) Enter name of SIC.

F) Enter point of origin of leg.

G) Enter point of destination.

H) Enter aircraft basic operating weight [BOW] and moment.

I) *Enter appropriate weight, arm, and moment for fuel.

J) *Enter seat number(s) in the box to the left and enter appropriate weight, arm, and moment for passenger(s).

K) *Enter the appropriate weights, arms, and moments for baggage.

L) Compute total weight & moment of aircraft.

M) Enter total weight of aircraft determined in item (L) above.

N) Enter maximum allowable takeoff weight [consideration should be given to gross weight, altitude, temperature, runway length, and any other factors affecting takeoff/ climb performance of the aircraft]. This weight should not be exceeded by item [M] above.

O) Enter center of gravity of loaded aircraft determined by dividing the total moment in item [L] above by the total weight in item [L] above.

P) Enter center of gravity limit as determined in the AFM or Aircraft Weight and Balance Manual. Item [O] should be within this limit.

*[Moments may be determined by multiplying the weight times the arm].

Ops Manual 4.3.7
 


Supernumeraries are sometimes used on a flight to perform functions of a flight attendant.  
 
     
 
  False.  
 
     
     FSG will provide at least the proper number of qualified flight attendants as required by FAR 135.107. A minimum of 2 flight attendants are required for any BBJ passenger operations. Flight Attendant seating assignment for takeoff and landing will be one Flight Attendant assigned to each pair of cabin doors. The number of flight attendants approved for FSG aircraft and operations are set forth in our FAA issued Ops Specs. 
FSG may from time to time utilize supernumerary personnel during its operations for the purpose of conducting certain passenger service activities such as serving food or beverages, completing customs department forms or conducting customer relations. These persons are not assigned to conduct or perform safety duties. They will not act in the capacity of a flight attendant nor are they listed on the load manifest as a crewmember/flight attendant. These personnel must receive a pre-takeoff and landing briefing containing the same information as that of the passengers on that flight. Additionally they must comply with all seat belt discipline as well as be seated for all aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 


A FSG PIC will allow who of the following to manipulate the controls of company aircraft?  
 
  FAA representative of the FAA who is qualified in the aircraft and is checking flight operations.  
     No FSG PIC will allow any person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during flight other than: 
A qualified pilot of FSG. 
An authorized pilot safety representative of the Administrator or of the National Transportation Safety Board who has the permission of the PIC, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations. 
Ops Manual 4.4
 


In FAR 135 BBJ operations, the PIC may allow what type of crew baggage in the cockpit?  
 
 
  Tote bags if secured with approved restraints.  
     CREW BAGGAGE [FAR 135 BBJ Operations only] 
The PIC is responsible to ensure that the crew baggage is limited to personal items. The PIC is responsible to ensure that the only personal baggage that can be carried in the aircraft cabin are cockpit briefcases and Flight Attendant’s tote bags. Flight Attendant tote bags may be stowed in the cockpit if the baggage is properly secured with the approved restraints.

To preclude injuries caused by sharp edged, heavy objects falling from overhead bins in the passenger cabin, crewmembers should not stow luggage carriers in the overhead baggage bins. Luggage carriers and other dense, sharp-edged, objects should be stowed beneath seats or in other suitable locations.

Ops Manual 4.6.1
 


For 135 BBJ operations, the check-in procedures will include:  
 
  Coordinate special assistance requests.  
 
  Ask security questions and screen luggage.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Profile carry-on baggage for size requirements.  
     PASSENGER CHECK-IN PROCEDURE [FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS ONLY] 
The PIC, or his designee, shall assure that the following passenger check-in procedures are followed:

Greet the passenger. 
Ask for passenger’s name and valid government issued photo I.D. 
Verify passenger information with the Passenger Manifest. 
Profile carry-on baggage for size requirements. 
Accept checked baggage and place destination tag(s) on baggage if required. 
Ask security questions and screen luggage. 
Complete any necessary forms [i.e., Notice of Law Enforcement Officers] for any special passengers. 
Issue boarding pass/authorization if applicable. 
Advise passenger of boarding information [i.e., time, location, etc.]. 
Coordinate special assistance requests. 
Maintain awareness of FARs pertaining to security and baggage acceptance [i.e., hazardous materials, carry-on baggage policy]. 
Ops Manual 4.7
 


What must be done prior to the PIC authorizing the closing of the aircraft door?  
 
  Passengers count must be verified and reconciled.  
 
     PASSENGER BOARDING PROCEDURE [FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS ONLY] 
The PIC, or his designee, will ensure that the following passenger boarding procedures are followed:

Pre-board as necessary any passengers requiring special assistance/handling. 
Co-ordinate boarding process to ensure a timely departure. 
Make boarding announcements as applicable. 
Scan carry-on baggage for size requirements. 
Keep passengers informed/updated in delay situations. 
After passengers have boarded, reconcile and confirm the passenger count with the Flight Attendant using the Passenger Manifest. The counts must match before the aircraft can depart. If an error exists it must be reconciled before the aircraft may depart. 
Secure/process all passenger and flight records. 
Once passenger counts have been verified and reconciled the PIC will give the okay to close the aircraft door. 
Ops Manual 4.8
 

	
Passengers must be under escort by the PIC or his designee at all times and never be allowed to access the area behind the wing of the aircraft.  
 
     
 
  True.  
 
     
     The PIC or his designee is responsible to keep passengers or other unauthorized personnel from roaming unsupervised on the ramp around the airplane. If the local airport authorities or traffic agents fail to keep unauthorized passengers or public off of the ramp, any FSG crewmember will immediately take control and require unauthorized persons to move away from the airplane and ensure those persons are escorted off the ramp. 
When boarding or deplaning without the use of a jetway, either airstairs or a stair truck is to be utilized [FAR 135 BBJ ops only]. FSG personnel need to be aware of passengers needing assistance. Attention must be paid to the surroundings as other aircraft and vehicles may be using the same area. Aircraft engine noise and jet blast can be harmful, so caution must be used during boarding and deplaning.

The PIC is responsible to ensure the passengers are protected from “jet blast” and slippery ramp conditions resulting from de-icing fluids and environmental elements. Passengers must be under escort by the PIC or his designee at all times and never be allowed to access the area behind the wing of the aircraft.

Ops Manual 4.9
 


Air travel is not recommend to new born babies within:  
 
  The first 7 days of life.  
     The PIC shall ensure that each person on board is briefed before takeoff on how to fasten and unfasten his safety belt/harness. 
The PIC shall ensure each passenger on board occupies a seat with his safety belt and harness [when installed] properly secured before takeoff and landing, and whenever he considers it necessary in the interests of safety.

The PIC shall ensure that multiple occupancy of airplane seats is not permitted other than by one adult and one child less than 2 years of age who is properly secured by a child restraint device.

FSG policy is that air travel is not recommended for healthy newborn babies within the first 7 days after delivery, and for mothers within 7 days after delivery.

Ops Manual 4.11 & 12
 


A child restraint seat will be used for all infants weighing less than:  
 
  40 pounds.  
     CHILD’S SEAT [FAR 135 BBJ OPS ONLY] 
The PIC will ensure the use of a child’s restraint seat to restrain a young child weighing up to 40 pounds during takeoff and landing or during inflight turbulence. 

Use of the child’s seat is subject to the following restrictions:

Seats manufactured between Jan. 1, 1981 and Feb. 26, 1985 must bear the label “This child restraint system conforms to applicable Federal Motor Vehicle Safety standards.” 
All seats manufactured after Feb. 26, 1985 must bear an additional label with red lettering stating: “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT.” 
Seats not carrying these labels or manufactured before Jan. 1, 1981 may be used in-flight only when the seat belt is off. 
When the approved seat is used it must be properly attached to the passenger seat. 
The child restraint seat should not be in an aisle seat or in an emergency exit row, or in the row immediately forward or aft of an emergency exit. 
A window passenger seat is the preferred location; other locations may be acceptable provided only responsible persons occupy seats next to the infant child. 
CHILD/INFANT BRACE POSITION

With approved child/infant seat:

20-40 pounds – Ensure child/infant is securely fastened to aircraft passenger seat [facing forward] using the passenger seat belt. 
Less than 20 pounds – Ensure child/infant seat is securely fastened to aircraft passenger seat [facing aft] using the passenger seatbelt. Ensure child/infant is secure by using the safety harness provided on the child/infant seat. 
Ops Manual 4.13.1
 


When should the passenger briefing be performed?  
 
 
  When passengers are seated and their attention is readily attained.  
     The PIC responsible for cabin safety from the time the airplane is accepted for flight, until all the passengers have been offloaded at the end of the flight. Each flight attendant will comply with the operations manual procedures for FAR 135 BBJ Ops. 
The PIC is to confirm that the passenger compartment contains the requisite emergency equipment in the appropriate stowage locations. Seatbacks are in the upright position and seat belts and/or harnesses are neatly arranged ready for use. Tables should be folded and stowed, and any catering secured in its approved areas or compartment. Unless the weight and balance for the flight and passenger category will be such that the random occupation of seats is permissible, passengers should be shown, to their seats, and unless toilet facilities are available on the airplane, should be advised to remain in their seats, with lap straps fastened, throughout the flight. Passenger briefing should be carried out when all passengers are seated, and their attention can readily be gained. The briefing is to be given in a calm and authoritative manner, and be as interesting and informative as possible. Whereas some passengers may be experienced air travelers, others may not previously have flown or may not be accustomed to different types of airplanes. The main goal of the briefing is to cover all required items and to highlight the contents of the passenger safety cards in order to ensure that all passengers will retain sufficient information to react sensibly in the event of an emergency which, it should be emphasized, is unlikely to occur.

Ops Manual 4.15.1
 
   
 
  
 
Prior to takeoff, the PIC will ensure the passengers are briefed on:  
 
  Smoking.  
 
  Stowage of carry on baggage.  
 
  Normal and emergency use of oxygen for flights involving operations above 12,000 ft. MSL.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     Before each takeoff, the PIC will ensure that all passengers have been briefed and are familiar with information regarding the items below. Printed passenger briefing cards conveniently located for the passengers will supplement the oral briefing. 
Smoking and its restrictions, with particular reference to its prohibition when oxygen is being used. 
Use of seat belts. 
The placement of seat backs in an upright position and stowage of tables and foot rests before takeoff and landing. 
Stowage of carry on baggage. 
Location and means for operating the passenger entry door and emergency exits. 
Location of survival equipment, including any required emergency flotation means. 
The normal and emergency use of oxygen for flights involving operations above 12,000 ft. MSL. 
Restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices. 
Location and use of floor emergency floor path lighting when fitted. 
For extended overwater ops and takeoffs and landings that require flight directly over water, the location and operation of life preservers, life rafts, and other flotation means including a demonstration of the donning of a life vest. This brief must include ditching procedures and the use of required flotation equipment. 
Location and use of a fire extinguisher. 
Ops Manual 4.18
 


If a person is on board who needs the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency, will be briefed on each leg of the flight to ensure their understanding of the instructions.  
 
     
 
  False.  
 
     
     Before each takeoff, the PIC will ensure that any person who may need the assistance of another person, to move expeditiously to an exit in the case of an emergency, and that person’s attendant if any, has received a briefing as to the procedures to be followed during an evacuation. 
The briefing will not be necessary for any passenger who was given a briefing on a previous leg of the flight. [This paragraph only applies to the preceding paragraph].

The briefing will be given by the PIC or other designated crewmember. The briefing will be supplemented by printed passenger briefing cards for the use of each passenger containing the following information:

A diagram and method of operating emergency exits. 
Other necessary instructions for the use of emergency equipment on board the aircraft. 
Passenger briefing cards will be placed in the pouch behind each seat or located conveniently near each seat. The PIC is responsible to ensure each passenger has a passenger briefing card available to him.

The PIC will ensure after each takeoff, immediately before or after turning off the fasten seatbelt sign, an announcement shall be made that the passengers should keep their seat belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt sign is off.

The pre-flight oral passenger briefing as stated above, may be presented by an FAA approved audio video presentation.

Ops Manual 4.18
 


A person will not be seated in an exit seat if they are under:  
 
  15 years of age.  
 
     EXIT SEATING CARD 
In order to ensure the fastest possible emergency evacuation, the FAA has set standards for people who sit in seats next to an exit. “If you are seated at an exit row and can’t understand, speak or read English, please contact your Flight Attendant.” 

A PERSON MAY NOT OCCUPY AN EXIT ROW SEAT IF HE/SHE LACKS SUFFICIENT MOBILITY, STRENGTH OR DEXTERITY IN BOTH ARMS AND HANDS AND IN BOTH LEGS TO:

Reach upwards, sideways and downwards to the location of emergency exit and exit slide operating mechanism. 
Grasp, push, pull, turn and/or otherwise manipulate those mechanisms. 
Push, shove, pull and/or otherwise open emergency exits. 
Maintain balance while removing obstructions. 
Stabilize an escape slide after deployment. 
Assist others getting off an escape slide. 
If less than 15 yrs. of age or lacks the capacity to perform one or more of the required functions w/o the assistance of an adult companion, parent or other relative. 
Lacks ability to read and understand written or graphic instructions or the ability to understand oral crew commands in the English language. 
Lacks sufficient visual capacity beyond the use of contact lenses or eyeglasses. 
Lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions shouted by crewmembers beyond the use of a hearing aid. 
Lacks the ability to orally instruct other passengers. 
Has a condition or responsibility [small children] that would prevent him/her from performing one or more of the required functions. 
A PERSON OCCUPYING AN EXIT ROW SEAT MUST, IN THE EVENT OF AN EMERGENCY IN WHICH A CREWMEMBER IS NOT AVAILABLE, BE ABLE TO PERFORM ONE OR MORE OF THE FOLLOWING:

Locate the emergency exit. 
Recognize the emergency exit opening mechanism. 
Comprehend the instructions for opening the emergency exit. 
Assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the hazards to which passengers may be exposed. 
Operate the emergency exit. 
Stow/secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of exit. 
Follow oral instructions and hand signals given by a crewmember. 
Manually activate the escape slide, assess the condition of an escape slide and stabilize the slide after deployment to assist others in getting off the slide. 
Pass expeditiously through the exit. 
Assess, select and follow a safe path away from the exit/aircraft. 
A PERSON ALREADY SEATED IN AN EXIT ROW CAN REQUEST RESEATING IF HE/SHE:

Can’t meet the selection criteria. 
Has a non-discernible condition that would prevent him/her from performing the listed functions. 
May suffer bodily harm as a result of performing one or more of the listed functions. 
Does not wish to perform the listed functions. 
Ops Manual 4.19.2
 


At the discretion of the PIC, who of the following may be carried without complying with passenger carrying requirements?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Anyone necessary for the safe handling of animals.  
 
  A company employee.  
 
  A representative of the NTSB.  
     At the discretion of the PIC, the following persons, but no others, may be carried aboard an airplane without complying with the passenger-carrying airplane requirements. 
1) A crewmember.

2) A company employee.

3) An FAA Air Carrier Inspector, or an authorized representative of the NTSB who is performing official duties.

Any person necessary for:

A) The safety of the flight.

B) The safe handling of animals.

C) The security of valuable or confidential cargo.

D) The preservation of fragile or perishable cargo.

E) Experiments on, or testing of, cargo containers or cargo handling devices.

F) The operation of special equipment for loading or unloading cargo.

G) Loading and unloading of outsize cargo.

4) Any person described above when traveling to or from his assignment.

Ops Manual 4.24.1
 


In BBJ operations, what is the weight limit for a passenger's checked baggage?  
 
  70 pounds.  
     CHECKED BAGGAGE [FAR 135 BBJ OPS ONLY] 
The PIC or his designee is responsible to only accept checked baggage belonging to passengers on the passenger manifest with a weight limit of 70 pounds per passenger. The 70 pounds limit can be waived at the discretion of the PIC.

Ops Manual 4.25.2
 


135 BBJ ops, which of the following are considered incidental and may be carried on board and not counted in the weight and balance?  
 
 
  A child seat.  
     FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS 
CARRY-ON BAGGAGE

The following items are considered incidental and may be carried aboard the aircraft in addition to the passenger’s carry-on baggage, and will not be counted in the weight and balance.

1) Laptop computers

2) A handbag [pocketbook or purse]

3) A coat or wrap

4) An umbrella or walking stick

5) A camera or pair of binoculars

6) A reasonable amount of reading material

7) An infant bag or child seat

8) Crutches/cane/braces or other prosthetic device on which the passenger is dependent

Ops Manual 4.25.3
 


Which of the following portable electronic devices are not allowed on board aircraft during flight operations?  
 
 
  FM radios.  
 
     The PIC or a crewmember assigned by the PIC will insure that no unauthorized portable electronic devices are operated by passengers onboard any FSG aircraft. Passengers should be advised of this policy during their pre-flight safety briefing by the PIC or his designee. This section does not apply to portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electronic shavers or any other portable device that the DO has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication systems of the aircraft on which it is to be used. 
Ops Manual 4.26
 


A report must be submitted by the Director of Operations to the FAA if a passenger is involved in an alcohol related incident within:  
 
  5 days.  
     The PIC or his designee will assure that no person may drink alcoholic beverages aboard a company aircraft unless said beverage has been supplied and served by an employee of FSG. No person will be offered any alcoholic beverage if in the opinion of the PIC the person appears to be intoxicated. Additionally, no person who is intoxicated or appears to be intoxicated will be allowed by the PIC to board any FSG aircraft. 
Additionally, no person will serve alcoholic beverages to a person who has a deadly or dangerous weapon accessible to him while onboard the aircraft in accordance with FARs or is escorting a person or is being escorted in accordance with FARs.

If any passenger being transported in air operations refuses to comply with the rules regarding alcoholic beverages or there is an incident involving a passenger disturbance involving alcohol the incident must be reported by the DO within 5 days to the Administrator.

Ops Manual 4.27
 


Smoking is not allowed:  
 
 
  Within 100 ft. of the aircraft on the ramp.  
 
     The PIC or his designee must illuminate the seatbelt and no smoking sign before movement on the surface, during takeoff, landing, or when in the judgment of the PIC it should be illuminated. When practical, flight crewmembers should make a visual check to insure that passengers are in compliance with the seatbelt and smoking requirements of this chapter. 
Additionally, as long as the seatbelt is illuminated, crewmembers should periodically remind the passengers that the seatbelt is lighted. Additional and forceful announcements should be made if passengers move from their seats and the seatbelt sign is still illuminated. This is especially true during turbulent air operations.

Company personnel shall not allow any person to smoke within 100 ft. of the aircraft on the ramp, nor in an airplane on the ramp while refueling.

Ops Manual 4.28
 


The SEATBELT sign should remain on until passing what altitude?  
 
 
  10,000 ft.  
     FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS 
The SEAT BELT sign is a signal to each passenger that he is to be in a seat with the seat belt properly fastened.

When the SEAT BELT sign is turned on, the PIC or his designee are to confirm that all passengers’ seat belts are properly fastened.

PUSHBACK AND TAXI: If any passenger(s) remains unseated when the boarding door is closed, the IFD will notify the PIC via the interphone or in person. In such cases, the PIC will delay movement of the airplane until advised that all passengers are seated with seat belts fastened.

AFTER TAKEOFF: The SEAT BELT sign should remain on until passing 10,000 ft. [or upon reaching a lower cruising altitude] and clear of terminal area traffic. The PIC or his designee should ensure that the signs should remain on above 10,000 ft. if turbulence is encountered or anticipated.

After takeoff, when the seatbelt sign has been turned off, an announcement should be made by the PIC or his designee noting that although the seat belt has been turned off, passengers should keep their seat belts fastened whenever they are in their seats.

Ops Manual 4.29.1
 


It will be ensured that smoke detectors in lavatories are not tampered with by the PIC or:  
 
 
  The Flight Attendant.  
 
     The PIC or the Flight Attendant will ensure that no person will tamper with, disable or destroy any smoke detector installed in any aircraft lavatory. When a flight is privately contracted, smoking charters may be permitted at the discretion of FSG Senior Management. 
Smoking is limited and is not permitted:

During takeoff and landing . 
While the NO SMOKING sign is on. 
In the lavatories. 
While standing or walking in the aisle(s). 
While the airplane is on the ground. 
When smoking is permitted, Flight Attendants should monitor the amount of smoke in the cabin air and alert the flight crew when it approaches a level that could be uncomfortable to a nonsmoker.

Ops Manual 4.30.1
 


Any crewmember who is subjected to an assault while on duty will receive company support including paid absence to appear in court.  
 
     
 
  True.  
 
 
     
     Any crewmember that is subjected to assault while at work will receive company support. This will include supervisory assistance and legal counsel in pursuing criminal action against the offending person, and paid absence to appear in court during a criminal proceeding. 
All assaults must be reported to the company immediately, before any legal action is undertaken by a crewmember. Following consultation with the company, the crewmember involved must bring criminal charges against anyone committing an assault against him or her. The company will cooperate with appropriate authorities in the criminal prosecution of all persons who commit an assault against a crewmember. In addition, the company will defend any crewmember in any legal action brought against a crewmember relating to an assault on such crewmember. In addition, the company will defend any crewmember in any legal action brought against a crewmember relating to an assault on such crewmember, provided the crewmember took all necessary and reasonable action in handling the unruly passenger in accordance with this section.

Although rare, assaults on employees by customers do occur. In many cases, the assault occurs simultaneously with other actions that interfere with the duties of a crewmember. For the purpose of this section, assault is defined as any action taken toward an individual that results in physical contact, or creates a threat of bodily harm or the apprehension of physical injury. Abusive language, unless the threat of violence or harm is created, is not considered assault.

Employees are expected to display understanding in trying to resolve the frustrations of our customers. However, they are not expected to tolerate physical abuse of any kind.

Ops Manual 4.32.2
 


If it becomes necessary to restrain a passenger using plastic restraints, how does a crewmember know that it is tight enough?  
 
  Leave one finger's width between the passenger's arm and the restraint.  

     PHYSICAL RESTRAINT OF PASSENGERS [FAR 135 BBJ OPS ONLY] 
The decision to restrain a passenger will be reached through consultation between the PIC and IFD. Final decision to use restraints rests with the PIC.

If assistance is needed to restrain a passenger, help from another Flight Attendant or a passenger is more advisable than asking a flight deck crewmember to leave his/her station. The decision to have a flight deck crewmember leave the flight deck to assist is the responsibility of the PIC.

When restraining an unruly passenger [using plastic restraints], the passenger’s hands must be restrained in back of [behind] the passenger.

When tightening restraints, leave a finger’s width of space between the passenger’s arm and the plastic restraint to ensure that the restraint will be effective while not restricting the flow of blood.

Ops Manual 4.32.4
 


Which of the following will NOT be done regarding the carriage of handicapped passengers?  
 
 
  The number of handicapped passengers will be limited to 2 per flight except for privately contracted handicapped charters.  
 
    The following is a summary of the FSG policy/procedure concerning the carriage of handicapped passengers: 
FSG will not directly, or through other means, refuse transportation on the basis of a personal handicap. 
The number of handicapped persons traveling on a flight may not be limited. 
FSG will not require a handicapped passenger to sit in any particular seat except to comply with FAA safety rules on exit row seating. Handicapped passengers will not be required to sit on blankets. 
Handicapped passengers will be advised as to the existence of seats equipped with movable armrests and offered such seats to the extent available. 
An attendant for the handicapped individual will not be required for the purpose of the passenger’s personal needs [use of the lavatory, eating, etc.] and may only be required when it is determined the attendant is essential for safety. 
Handicapped passengers who must be accompanied by an attendant as a condition of travel, are responsible for providing the attendant and paying the attendant’s related travel expenses. 
Ops Manual 4.33.1
 


In 135 BBJ operations, who is responsible for assuring that any passenger in need of assistance in the event of an emergency evacuation will be briefed?  
 
  The Inflight Director.  

     FLIGHT ATTENDANT SAFETY BRIEFING FOR HANDICAPPED PASSENGERS [FAR 135 BBJ OPERATIONS ONLY] 
It is the responsibility of the IFD to brief any passenger likely to need assistance in evacuating an airplane. It is the forward IFD’S responsibility, in conjunction with the other IFD, to assign a specific Flight Attendant to personally brief the handicapped passenger [and his attendant, if any] as to the following:

Use of seatbelt. 
Location of exits. 
Location and use of oxygen mask. 
Location and use of flotation means and life vest. 
Smoking/smoke detector regulations. 
Routes to appropriate exits and when to begin moving to an exit in an evacuation. 
Inquire as to ways to avoid inflicting further pain or injury to the person during an evacuation. 
The briefing must be completed prior to takeoff at the boarding station. If possible, brief the passenger immediately if pre-boarded. The briefing is not required before every takeoff on a multi-stop flight. It is necessary only for a change of airplane and/or applicability of information [i.e., first segment over land, second segment over water; change of seat position, etc.].

Ops Manual 4.33.4
 


At what flight level will at least 1 pilot at the controls put on and use his oxygen mask?  
 
 
  FL350.  
 
     When operating at flight altitudes above FL 250 each flight crewmember will insure that his quick donning oxygen mask is positioned so that it can be rapidly placed on his face into position from its ready position if required and be fully operational. When operating above FL 250 through FL 350, the PIC will ensure one pilot at the controls shall at all times wear and use an oxygen mask unless each crewmember is equipped with a quick donning oxygen mask that FSG has demonstrated can be quickly donned with one hand within 5 seconds. Notwithstanding this section, the PIC will ensure that if for any reasons a flight crewmember is required to leave his station at the controls of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above 
FL 250, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot returns to his duty station. When an aircraft is operated at flight altitudes above FL 350, at least one pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask. Prior to each flight each flight crewmember will personally preflight his oxygen equipment completely to ensure that it is functioning and operating properly.

Ops Manual 4.34.1
 


The PIC may allow a passenger to carry oxygen equipment under which of these conditions?  
 
  The equipment is properly secured and constructed.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  The equipment is furnished by FSG.  
 
  The equipment is capable of providing a flow of 4 liters per minute.  
     The PIC may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the storage, generation or dispensing of oxygen when the equipment is furnished by FSG, is of a type that is approved by regulation, is maintained by FSG in accordance with an approved maintenance program, is free of flammable contaminants on all exterior surfaces, is capable of providing a flow of 4 liters per minute, is appropriately secured and is constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage. The PIC must ensure that the equipment must be stowed in such a way that the person using the oxygen equipment can be seated so as not to restrict any access to, or use of any required emergency or normal exit or of the aisle in the passenger compartment. It is imperative that the requirements of FAR 121.574 be met in all cases when oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid or a compressed gas. The person using the oxygen must have written proof of this medical need from a physician describing the quantity and flow rate required. The PIC must be informed anytime portable oxygen equipment is to be used onboard and when it is to be used. This section does not apply to the use or the carriage of supplemental or first aid oxygen and its related equipment. 
Ops Manual 4.34
 


Any questions regarding the Flight Locating Requirements should be addressed to whom?  
 
  The Director of Operations.  
 
     The Director of Operations is responsible for the control and management of the personnel and the quality of the procedures contained in this section. Any questions regarding this section shall be directed to the Director of Operations. 
Ops Manual 2.1.1



In addition to the PIC, who has the delegated authority from the Director of Operations to initiate, continue, cancel or divert a flight?  
 
 
  Flight Followers.  

     The Director of Operations has the authority to implement changes to the Flight Locating Requirements. The Manager of Technical Publications [MTP] shall be the point of contact to submit proposed modifications to FSG’s Operations policies. The Director of Operations shall assess the impacts of revising any of the Flight Following procedures before approval. 
The Director of Operations and the PIC have the joint authority for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and/or cancellation of flights. However, the PIC has the final authority to initiate, continue, cancel, or divert a flight.

Flight Followers have the Director of Operation’s delegated authority for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and/or cancellation of flights.

Ops Manual 3.1.1
 



 


When the Director of Operations delegates Operational Control to a Flight Follower it must be in writing in the:  
 
  Duty Roster.  
 
     In accordance with FAR 135 the Director of Operations of FSG will share joint operational control with the PIC of a given flight. For the purposes of an individual flight, the Director of Operations or his designee and the PIC of the particular flight are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion and termination of a flight. The DO may delegate these duties but he may not delegate responsibility. Delegation must be in written form. The DO’s designees are known as Flight Followers. This delegation notification will be made in writing by the DO in the Duty Roster. The Duty Roster is published weekly by the DO. 
Ops Manual 4.1.1
 


Anytime the location of an aircraft operating under 135 is in doubt, search actions will be coordinated with:  
 
  Flight Service Station.  
 
     FLIGHT LOCATING SYSTEM 
A) The PIC or his representative will record the required information on the “Load Manifest” form.

B) All flights will be conducted under a filed IFR or VFR flight plan.

C) The PIC will advise the DO or his representative by telephone when unscheduled landings are made or if any change in the flight itinerary occurs.

D) If a flight is excessively overdue, the DO or his representative will locate the overdue aircraft with coordination of the appropriate FSS. Search actions will be requested through the FSS when the location of any aircraft operating under FAR 135 is in doubt.

Ops Manual 4.2
 



FSG International flights will be conducted in accordance with:  
 
  FSG Ops Manual.  
 
  Regulations of any foreign country.  
 
  Annex 2, Rules of the Air [ICAO].  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     FSG shall not operate an aircraft in another country’s airspace unless it has been authorized to do so by that country. 
FSG Int’l Flights will be conducted in accordance with procedures in the Ops Manual and comply with Annex 2, Rules of the Air [ICAO] or the regulations of any foreign country, whichever applies, and with applicable FARs, Parts 61, 91, 121 and 135.

Prior to conducting overseas long-range flights into politically sensitive areas FSG will establish contact with the US State Dept. for up-to-date information and advice.

The entry requirements depicted in Jeppesen Manuals are the primary reference for int’l as well as domestic operations.

The information, other than FSG procedures contained in this section, is extracted from the Jeppesen Manuals and is condensed to reflect the needs of FSG’s ops. Detailed information may be found in the appropriate Jeppesen Manual covering the concerned geographic area under J-AID and NAVIGATION. Source material is also duplicated in the AIM and in the Int’l Flight Information Manual issued by the US DOT and by ICAO publications.

The PIC of int’l flights will have recent experience in int’l ops or will have completed an int’l ops school as approved by FSG.

Ops Manual 4.1.1 
 



What altimeter will be set passing the Transition Altitude on departure?  
 
  QNE.  
 
     While operating aircraft in foreign countries all FSG flight crew members will adapt the following policy with regard to the setting of their altimeters to QNE: 
Once a flight has been cleared to a FLIGHT LEVEL, all flight crew members will reset their altimeters to standard pressure. A flight level is defined as an altitude above the transition altitude and standard pressure is defined as 29.92 Inches of Mercury [HG] or 1013.2 Millibars [MB]. 
By eliminating the time gap to reset the altimeter receipt of the clearance to a flight level and passing through the applicable transition altitude the time period will be eliminated wherein that flight crew could be distracted and forget to set their altimeter to QNE. 
Ops Manual 4.2
 


Who coordinates with the PIC ensuring the verification of authority and equipment?  
 
 
  Flight Followers.  
 
     The Director of Operations delegates the verification of authority/equipment to Flight Followers and the supervision of this task to the Operations Manager. Flight Followers shall complete the following items coordinating his efforts with the PIC to ensure proper trip planning: 
Route determination. 
Flight time. 
Trip Folder. 
Aircraft and Airport Planning Checklist. 
Permit Information Page. 
Compliance with crew flight and duty limitations. 
Fuel uplift arrangement, if necessary. 
Ground handling and accommodations. 
Applicable civil aviation regulations if more restrictive than ICAO or FAR Part 61, 92, 135 and 121. 
Ensure that the necessary visas or tourist cards have been obtained and that the client has been advised and meets the immunization/inoculation requirements of the areas to be visited. The crewmembers are responsible for maintaining immunization/inoculation records. 
Ops Manual 4.3.2
 


Who prepares the Trip Folder?  
 
 
  The Operations Manager or his designee.  
 
     The Operations Manager or his designee will prepare the Trip Folder and review its contents with the PIC prior to departure. The Trip Folder should contain all of the applicable information: 
Itinerary; times, UTC and local time [LT]. 
Handling agents, listing: 
oAFTN address if available [for filing flight plan] 
oTelephone numbers 
oFax Numbers 
oVHF/HF frequencies 
oContact [name] 

Crew hotel 
Scheduled crew flight and duty time 
Airport curfew(s) 
Permit Information Page 
Requests and acknowledgements for handling [chronologically arranged] 
Appropriate ARINC radio propagation charts, if applicable 
BERNA RADIO HF frequency chart 
A list of American embassies per itinerary [time permitting] 
List of aircraft manufacturer technical support representatives [if available] 
Flight Release including: 
oFlight Plan 
oWeather and NOTAMS’s 
oNAT TRACKS, if applicable 
oFault Detection and Exclusion [FDE] Prediction 

Required military permits 
FSG Int’l Post Flight Reference Information 
Special instructions 
Customs/Immigration declarations 
Appropriate oceanic plotting charts 
Flight shall be conducted or flown over routes as depicted on Jeppesen High and Low Altitude charts and/or other suitable enroute charts or daily random tracks as published by Gander or Shannon Oceanic Control or other facilities. 
Ops Manual 4.3.3
 


International Flight Operations are conducted by whose consent?  
 
  The Government.  
 
     As a Certificated Air Carrier, FSG holds FAA-granted authority to conduct various types of int’l flight ops. Int’l Flight Ops are conducted by governmental consent only. Int’l Ops will be conducted under Supplemental Flight Rules. 
Non-scheduled operators such as FSG, conducting int’l ops, must apply for and obtain prior permission from each country where terminal or overfly ops are conducted. The manner in which FSG conducts int’l ops affects the company and national interests. 

CAUTION: UNAUTHORIZED ENTRY INTO FOREIGN FACILITIES AND TERRITORIES CAN CAUSE DELAYS, FORCED LANDINGS, FINES, PENALTIES, IMPOUNDING OF THE AIRCRAFT, DETENTION OF THE CREW AND PASSENGERS, POSSIBLE DIPLOMATIC REPERCUSSIONS, AND INCREASED COSTS TO CIRCUMNAVIGATE AREAS FOR WHICH OPERATING PRIVILEGES MAY BE LOST.

Summaries of Foreign requirements can be found in the International Flight Information Manual [IFIM], the ‘Entry Requirements’ section of Jeppesen Manuals, and Aeronautical Information Publications [AIP’s]. Assistance in obtaining the necessary overfly permissions may also be sought from the U.S. Embassy in the country concerned.

Ops Manual 4.4.1
 


Many countries do not require prior authority to be granted for aircraft conducting nonscheduled operations for non-commercial purposes.  
 
     
 
     
 
  True.  
     It is the objective of FSG that flights shall not be released without first possessing the required permits, licenses and authorizations required for the intended flight. The proper and timely utilization of over-flight and landing authorizations can result in substantial savings for the company in fuel, maintenance and other costs. Proper monitoring and oversight of the permit request/granting process will aid in the timely release of flights, resulting in fewer delays. 
Many countries do not require prior authority to be granted for aircraft conducting nonscheduled operations for non-commercial purposes [such as diversion or technical stop]. Specific provisions can be found in the Jeppesen Manuals, IFIM, and AIP’s.

Ops Manual 4.4.2
 


Information needed to obtain the necessary permits are summarized on:  
 
  The Permit Information Page [PIP].  
 
     PHASE ONE: DETERMINATION - This phase will be done upon notification of the proposed trip. The Flight Follower will determine which countries require overflight and/or terminal permission on the route segments to be flown. 
The Flight Follower will apply for and obtain the necessary permits. This information will be summarized on the Permit Information Page [PIP] and provided to the PIC as part of the Trip Package. Reference Section 9 to obtain the PIP and its instructions. Hardcopies of actual permits and contact information for the person or agency issuing the permit will be kept on file by the Flight Following Dept. until the flight, or series of flights, that the permits apply to is completed.

Ops Manual 4.4.3
 


The Flight Follower will only release the flight after verifying that the flight release complies with:  
 
 
  The PIP.  
     PHASE TWO: VERIFICATION – The Flight Follower will only release the flight after verifying that the flight release complies with the information on the PIP. The Flight Follower will not release a flight to overfly or land in countries for which an authorization has not been obtained. The release of the flight serves as the Flight Follower’s acknowledgement that all permit and authorization requirements have been complied with in the release of the flight. 
If a required country is not listed on the PIP, an amended or new PIP must be generated. If it is impossible to obtain the required permits, the route of flight must be adjusted to avoid those countries not listed on the PIP.

After the Flight Follower has released the flight in compliance with the PIP, he will send the PIP to the PIC of the flight. A single PIP may be issued for multiple flight legs. However, the Flight Follower must verify that each flight leg complies with the information on the PIP.

Ops Manual 4.4.3
 



In over water operations, a multi-engine airplane with critical engine inoperative should be able to climb at a rate of:  
 
  50 FPM at 1,000 ft. AGL.  
 
     No flight follower will release and no PIC will operate a land airplane carrying passenger over water except: 
At an altitude that permits it to reach a suitable airport in case of an engine failure. 
When it is necessary for takeoff and landing, or 
A multi-engine airplane at a weight that will allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 FPM at an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the surface. 
FAR 121 OPERATIONS: If the route that is utilized contains a point that is less than or equal to one hour flying time, in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative from an adequate airport that can be used for landing. [Applicable to Non-ETOPS approved twin engine operations only]. 
Ops Manual 4.5
 



FSG is authorized to conduct RVSM operations in the MNPS airspace of North Atlantic and Canada.  
 
 
  True.  
     
     FSG is authorized to conduct ops within the MNPS [Ops Specs B-039 Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications] airspace of the North Atlantic and Canada. In addition, FSG has authorization to conduct RVSM [Ops Specs B-046, Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums] ops within the MNPS region for those aircraft listed in D-092 of the Ops Specs. 
Standards of navigation accuracy are required to meet exacting requirements within MNPS airspace. Only specific electronic systems are approved for this reason. All such systems have to be redundant and totally independent of each other.

Ops Manual 4.6.1
 

How many ocean control areas [OCA or OCTA] in the North Atlantic?  
 
  Four  
 
     There are 4 oceanic control areas [OCA or OCTA] in the North Atlantic: 
Above 45 degrees latitude: 

Gander, west of 30 degrees W longitude 
Shanwick, east of 30 degrees W longitude 
Below 45 degrees latitude: 

New York, west of 40 degrees longitude 
Santa Maria, east of 40 degrees longitude 
OCA’s extend from FL 055 to an unlimited flight level.

When crossing the boundary between the control areas, the position report is made to the OCA being entered with a request to copy the prior OCA.

EXAMPLE: “SHANWICK copy GANDER – POSITION N399CB 52 degrees NORTH 30 degrees WEST 1020 FL350 EST 51 degrees NORTH 20 degrees WEST 1102 51 degrees NORTH 15 degrees WEST NEXT.”

To facilitate the use of step-climb for fuel conservation purposes, include the highest acceptable flight level when making the boundary crossing report.

Ops Manual 4.6.4
 
The MNPS area geographically includes:  
 
  Reykjavik to the North Pole.  
 
  Shanwick Oceanic.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  New York Oceanic.  
     The MNPS area is geographically defined as: 
Vertically: From FL 285 to FL 420. 
Laterally: Includes the OCA’s: Reykjavik to the N. Pole, Shanwick and Gander Oceanic, Santa Maria north of N27 degrees 00 minutes and New York Oceanic excluding the area west of longitude W60 degrees and south of latitude N38 degrees 30 minutes. 
It must be understood that the MNPS applies 24 hrs. a day over the entire geographical area to the Pole from FL 285 through FL 420. To enter that region requires certification from the state of registry for the aircraft and the operator. 
Ops Manual 4.6.1
 



The most northerly Organized Track at its point of origin is labeled:  
 
 
  Track A.  
 
     Organized Tracks are developed for sub-sonic traffic. The daytime structure [westbound traffic] is published by Shanwick and the nighttime structure [eastbound traffic] by Gander. 
The NAT tracks flight levels that are established daily by the Gander and Shanwick Oceanic Control Areas’s [OCA]. The tracks are based on the minimum time track and are constructed by Gander for nighttime routes and by Shanwick for daytime routes. After coordination between the two OCA’s, “the track message,” identifying the routes of the organized track system [OTS], is issued via AFTN. Typically, they are published at 0100UTC and 1300UTC for the day and night OTS, respectively.

The tracks are drawn between whole degrees of latitude along the longitudinal lines in even multiples of 10 degrees. These tracks are labeled alphabetically. The daytime track most northerly at its point of origin is designated “Track A” and the next most northerly, “Track B”. The nighttime track most southerly at the point of origin is designated “Track Z” and the next most southerly, “Track Y.”

Ops Manual 4.6.2
 



The Eastbound OTS is effective between:  
 
 
  0100 UTC and 0800 UTC.  
     In order to permit an orderly changeover between successive organized track systems, a period of 2 hrs. is interposed between termination of one system and the commencement of the next. During these periods [normally 2200z-0000z and 
0900z-1100z], Gander and Shanwick negotiate the most efficient method of operation.

Mach number is used to maintain proper time separation between aircraft in the OTS. The Mach assigned to an aircraft must be maintained to a tolerance of 

+/- .01M. ATC approval must be obtained prior to making any change or they must be advised as soon as possible if, for any reason, an immediate change has become necessary.

Passenger demands, time zone differences and airport noise restrictions require that traffic flow be conducted overnight Eastbound, arriving in Europe in the morning. Similar demands require the Westbound operation to be conducted during the afternoon and evening. The Eastbound OTS is effective between 0100 UTC and 0800 UTC at W30 degrees 00 minutes and the Westbound OTS between 1130 UTC and 1900 UTC at W30 degrees 00 minutes.

Ops Manual 4.6.2
 



	What is the lateral separation in the OTS?  
 
 
  60 NM.  
 
     Non-radar traffic separation is applied from the ocean entry checkpoint to ocean exit checkpoint: 
Only IFR traffic is permitted above FL 055. 
Lateral separation is 60nm in the OTS. 
Longitudinal separation is 10 minutes but can be less in the OTS. 
Reducing the vertical separation theoretically enables an additional 400 plus aircraft to be introduced into the system during each OTS period [assuming five tracks in operation]. More tracks can be introduced as necessary.

Ops Manual 4.6.2
 



How often are the OTS track coordinates changed?  
 
  At 12 hour intervals.  
 
     The Traffic peak flow and variability of the Weather systems necessitates changing the track coordinates at 12-hour intervals. 
Gander Oceanic essentially determines the Tracks for the eastbound operation and Shanwick for the westbound. Both centers consult with each in establishing the datum about which the tracks are constructed. Requests from the Airlines, the Oceanic centers at New York, Reykjavik, Bodo [Norway], and Santa Maria, and in addition, requests for opposite direction flow are all taken into account before dissemination. Further consideration is given to the impact on the NARS [N. American Route Structure] and the EUR RTS [European Route Structure]. Military inputs are also built into the system. If traffic requirements so warrant, tracks are established for Europe-Caribbean [EUR/CAR] routes also.

Ops Manual 4.6.3
 




During the time that they depend on HF communications, pilots should maintain a listening watch on the assigned frequency. This is not necessary if what equipment is installed?  
 
  SELCAL.  
     Operation over the major part of North Atlantic area requires HF equipment [for exceptions see below]. 
Pilots shall maintain HF, listening, watch on assigned radio frequency, unless SELCAL equipment is used. An operational check of SELCAL equipment with appropriate radio station at or prior initial entry into Oceanic Airspace is required. This check must be maintained even in areas where VHF coverage is available and used for Air to Ground Communications.

Aircraft are exempted from carrying HF equipment when flying:

STN/BEN-61N10W-KEF [at or above FL 240], KEF-65N30W-DA [between FL 80 and FL 195]. 
NOTE: Operations at other Flight Levels or any other routes within Reykjavik OCTA/FIR outside of VHF coverage without HF equipment must obtain prior approval.

In case of HF communications failure, relay of position reports via another aircraft should be made. For this purpose, the air-to-air VHF frequency 123.45 MHz has been designated or as published. If necessary, the initial contact with the other aircraft may be made on 121.5 MHz.

Ops Manual 4.6.9
 


In the event of radio communications failure, what should the pilot do?  
 
  Switch transponder on Mode A/C 7600.  
 
     If so equipped, the pilot of an aircraft experiencing a two-way radio communications failure shall operate transponder on Mode A/C, Code 7600. The pilot shall also attempt to contact any ATC facility or another aircraft and inform them of the difficulty and request they relay information to the ATC facility with which communications are intended. 
Due to the potential length of time in Oceanic Airspace, it is strongly recommended that a pilot experiencing communications failure while still in domestic airspace does not enter the Oceanic Control Area.

Ops Manual 4.6.10
 



FSG is authorized by the FAA to operate in certain areas with single HF communications. What area is excepted?  
 
  NAT MNPS airspace.  
 
     FSG has been granted Ops Specs B-045 from the FAA. B-045 allows FSG to operate its aircraft in extended overwater operations in a limited geographic area with only one high frequency communication radio. 
FSG’s area of operation permitted under the Ops Specs is defined by the following description and excludes all North Atlantic minimum navigation performance specs [NAT MNPS] airspace described in FAR Part 91, Appendix C:

1) Beginning at 44 degrees 47’20”N 67 degrees 00’00”W

2) Hence to 39 degrees 00’00”N 67 degrees 00’00”W

3) Hence to 38 degrees 30’00”N 69 degrees 20’00”W

4) Hence to 38 degrees 00’00”N 60 degrees 00’00”W

5) Hence to 27 degrees 00’00”N 60 degrees 00’00”W

6) Hence to 27 degrees 00’00”N 58 degrees 00’00”W

7) Hence to 07 degrees 46’00”N 58 degrees 00’00”W

8) Thence, northwestward along the adjacent coastline of South America, the eastern coastline of Central America the eastern coastline of Mexico, and the southern and eastern coastlines of the U.S. to beginning point.

Ops Manual 4.6.11
 



Which of these are methods of obtaining oceanic clearances?  
 
  Use of VHF clearance delivery frequencies when in coverage.  
 
  Via AFIS Datalink.  
 
  Request via domestic or other ATC agencies.  
 
  All the answers are correct.  
     Oceanic Clearances are obtained via: 
VHF clearance delivery frequencies when in coverage. 
HF to the OCA through the appropriate radio station [if possible at least 40 minutes before the boundary/entry estimate]. 
A request via domestic or other ATC agencies. 
Data link, when arrangements have been made by aircraft operators to request clearances using ACARS equipment [only possible from participating OCA centers with the necessary means of automation]. 
Prior departure from airports close to oceanic boundaries. 
Refer to specific Center procedures in subsequent paragraphs.

Aircraft encountering en route to the NAT oceanic airspace a critical in-flight equipment failure must advise ATC at initial contact when requesting Oceanic clearance.

Any change in the Estimate for the Oceanic Boundary originally given at the time of initial contact with ATC/OCA must be passed on the ATC.

Should the Oceanic Clearance original flight level differ from the current flight level, a domestic re-clearance must be obtained to ensure that the flight is in compliance with the Oceanic Clearance when entering Oceanic Airspace.

Ops Manual 4.6.15
 



For westbound Atlantic clearances, aircraft should contact Shanwick when east of 2 degrees W. When should non- NAT aircraft contact Shanwick?  
 
 
  20 minutes prior to the ETA OCA entry point.  
 
     Shanwick OCA: 
For westbound Atlantic clearances, aircraft should contact Shanwick when east of 2 degrees W 
oOther [non-NAT] aircraft should contact Shanwick 20 minutes prior to the ETA OCA entry point. 
oCall “Shanwick Oceanic” on 123.95, (P) primary, or 127.65 (S) secondary, or on HF; maintain SELCAL watch.

Santa Maria OCA: Clearance must be requested at least 20 minutes before crossing the OCA boundary. Contact Santa Maria Control via Santa Maria Radio on HF. The following information should be included in the request:

Call sign, request FL and Mach Number. 
OCA entry point and ETA. Eagle is considered to be an oceanic entry point on an organized track system. 
Any change to filed flight plan. 
Westbound turbojet flights cleared on one of the organized tracks will receive clearance consisting only of track identification, flight level and Mach number. Full coordinates of the track accepted are to be readback.

Alternate Information/Clearance Sources:

Track Information for the North Atlantic is transmitted on 133.80 MHz 24 hrs. a day. 
When use of HF is necessary to request/receive an oceanic clearance, full readback of coordinates is required. 
Ops Manual 4.6.18
 



If you see a TMI [NAT Track Message Identification Number] of 33B, what does that tell you?  
 
 
  This is the 2nd amendment of the track message on February 2.  
 
     NAT Track Messages are identified by a 3-digit Track Message Identification number [TMI], appearing at the end of the Track Message. This number relates to the day of the year [no reference to month]. Any subsequent NAT track amendments on a given day will carry a successive alpha number, i.e. TMI 33B would reflect the 2nd amendment of the TMI for the 33rd day of the year. Ensuring that the flight is planned on the correct track of the day is essential. Crews should also be given copy of the track message(s) at time of briefing. 
Ops Manual 4.6.21
 



When flying eastbound OTS at 30W at 0300 UTC, which of the following are viable flight levels?  
 
   340.  
     EASTBOUND OTS VALIDITY PERIOD AT 30W: 0100 UTC TO 0800 UTC 
FL’s on the OTS: 310 320 330 340 350 360 370 380 390 
FL’s on Random Eastbound Routes: 290* 310 330 350 (360 for flights north of the OTS and Santa Maria OCA transits from the Caribbean or South America) 370 390 410* 
FL’s on Random Westbound Routes: 280* 320 340 380 410* 
Ops Manual 4.6.22
 



Which of the following flight levels may be planned both E/B and W/B for NON-RVSM approved aircraft?  
 
  FL410.  
 
     OUTSIDE THE OTS VALIDITY PERIOD AT 30W: 0801 UTC to 1129 UTC to 0059 UTC 
FL’s on Random Westbound Routes: 260* 280* (310 only 1801 UTC to 2159 UTC) 320 340 (360 from 2200 UTC to 0059 UTC reserved for transit flights between Shanwick and Santa Maria airspace) 380 430* 470* 
FL’s on Random Eastbound Routes: 270* 290* (310 not available 1801 UTC to 2159 UTC) 330 350 (360 from 2200 UTC to 0059 UTC only when north of the Eastbound OTS area) 370 390 410* 450* 
*NON-RVSM Flight Levels 
NOTE: During the hours of validity of the OTS, flight should be planned to operate in accordance with OTS, or along a route to join or leave an outer track of the OTS at any point along the track, or on a random route to remain clear of the OTS.

Flights intending to operate wholly or partially outside the OTS should be planned at levels appropriate to the direction of flight except that during the Westbound OTS validity period, westbound flights may also flight plan at FL 330 or FL 350. During the Eastbound validity period, eastbound flights may also flight plan at FL’s 310 and 360. 
Random routes are to be planned 60nm North or South of the OTS. 
FL 410 may be flight planned both East and westbound for NON-RVSM approved aircraft during any time period. 
Flights against Peak Traffic Flow: Eastbound traffic crossing 30W at 1030 UTC or later and westbound traffic crossing 30W at 0000UTC or later should plan to avoid the OTS. 
Within the transition areas, flights are to be planned using the following flight levels: 
oE/B 290* 330 370 410* 
oW/B 280* 310 350 390 
o*NON-RVSM Flight Levels 

Ops Manual 4.6.24
 	



For random flight planning at or South of 70N, estimates shoud be given for:  
 
  The last domestic reporting point prior to Oceanic Entry Point.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  The OCA boundary entry and exit point.  
 
  The first domestic reporting point after ocean exit.  
     RANDOM FLIGHT PLANNING 
At or South of 70N the route and estimates should be given for:

The last domestic reporting point prior to Oceanic Entry Point. 
The OCA boundary entry and exit point [only required by Shanwick, New York and Santa Maria]. 
Significant points formed by intersection of half or whole degrees of latitude with meridians spaced at 10 degrees longitude from the Greenwich Zero degree up to 70W. 
The first domestic reporting point after ocean exit. 
The requested Mach Number and FL should be specified at: 
oEither the last domestic reporting point prior to Oceanic Entry Point or the OCA boundary and, 
oAt each point a change in Mach Number or FL is desired followed in each case by the next significant point. 

NORTH OF 70N: Same as above, except that the route should be specified in terms of significant points formed by the intersection of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes with longitude spaced at 20 degrees from the Greenwich Zone degree up to 60W. 
ENERALLY NORTH or SOUTHBOUND DIRECTION: Same as above, except that the route should be specified in terms of significant points formed by the intersection of half or whole degrees of longitude with latitude spaced at 5 degrees interval from 20N to 90N. 
Ops Manual 4.6.28
 



When flying in NAT MNPS airspace, it is imperative that pilots adhere strictly to their assigned MACH number unless:  
 
 
  Re-clearance is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit.  

     The Mach Number Technique is based on the True Mach Number. The ATC clearance includes the assigned Mach number to be maintained in the Oceanic Airspace. It is therefore necessary that the desired Mach number be included in the NAT Oceanic Airspace Flight Plan. ATC uses Mach Number, together with pilot position reports to calculate estimated times for significant points along the track. These times provide the basis for longitudinal separation between aircraft and for coordination with adjacent ATC units. 
In the application of Mach Number Technique, particularly in the 10 minute longitudinal separation environment implemented in NAT MNPS airspace, it is imperative that pilots adhere strictly to their assigned Mach Numbers including during enroute climbs or descents unless a specific re-clearance is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit. If an immediate temporary change in the Mach Number is essential e.g., due to turbulence, etc., ATC must be notified as soon as possible. After leaving Oceanic Airspace pilots must maintain their assigned Mach number in domestic controlled airspace unless the appropriate ATC unit authorizes a change.

Ops Manual 4.6.29
 



What are the OTS system boundaries?  
 
  FL 285 to FL 420.  
 
     OCEANIC AREA CONTROL SPECIFIC PROCEDURES 
Shanwick OCA Oceanic Clearance (Westbound): When operating from the UK FIR/IUR and Northern part of France UIR request the Oceanic Clearance from “Shanwick Oceanic” on VHF. (VHF coverage depicted on chart). Note that UK departures are to request clearance as soon as possible after takeoff. Departures from Belfast, Edinburgh, Prestwick or more generally airports close to Shanwick OCA boundary with entry points between N54 W015 and N59 W010 should request the Airport ATS to obtain the Oceanic Clearance 30 minutes before departure. If outside of the VHF coverage or unable to contact “Shanwick Oceanic” on VHF, request clearance on NAT HF frequencies at least 40 minutes before the ETA for the Oceanic Boundary.

Maintain a SELCAL watch for receipt of the Oceanic Clearance.

The OTS system extends from FL 285 to FL 420. The only FL’s available, on the E/B NAT tracks that FSG is authorized to use, with NON-RVSM aircraft are 

FL 290 and FL 410. Since these levels are required to be attained by the ocean entry point, performance limitations reduces the choice to FL 290 on a NAT. However, FL 280 or 290 as appropriate can be used for an MTT (minimum time track). If there is sufficient time saving, the MTT could be more economical fuel-wise.

Ops Manual 4.6.31
 



The distance between reporting points should not exceed:  
 
   1 hour's flight time.  
     POSITION REPORTING PROCEDURES 
EAST/WESTBOUND:

South of Latitude 70 degrees N: 
oAt 10 degrees Longitude intervals between 0 degrees and 70 degrees W (0 degrees, 10 degrees W, 20 degrees W, etc.)

North of Latitude 70 degrees N: 
o At 20 degrees W Longitude intervals between 0 degrees and 60 degrees W (0 degrees, 20 degrees W, 40 degrees W, etc.)

The distance between reporting points shall, as far as possible, not exceed one hour’s flight time. Additional reporting points should be established when deemed necessary due to aircraft speed or the angle at which the meridian is crossed. South of latitude 70 degrees N: At 10 degrees Longitude intervals between 5 degrees W and 65 degrees W (5 degrees W, 15 degrees W, 25 degrees W, etc.). North of Latitude 70 degrees N: At 20 degrees Longitude intervals between 100 degrees and 50 degrees W (10 degrees W, 30 degrees W, 50 degrees W, etc.). 
NORTH/SOUTHBOUND

At 5 degrees Latitude intervals (30 degrees N, 25 degrees N, 20 degrees N, etc.), Longitude in degrees and minutes. 
Gander OCA. 
Also at 45 degrees W southbound below FL 290, and the domestic/oceanic boundary if crossed north of 53 degrees N. 
Ops Manual 4.6.32
 



How many organized track systems are across the Pacific north of 20 degrees N?  
 
  Three.  
     NORTH PACIFIC [NOPAC] 
There are 3 organized track systems across the Pacific north of 20 degrees N. The North Pacific Routes in the Tokyo and Anchorage OCA’s are composed of 3 groups [Refer to Jeppesen chart NP 9Hi) 2:

A series of 5 one-way airways [R-20, R-80, A-90, R-91, and G-44] using RVSM, designated checkpoints, and Mach number assignment for control. 
A series of 5 ATS, airways designated by name [COOKE, HOLLY, ARTTY, DAVIS, AND ELAINE] using non-composite [IACO] separation standards. These airways are Eastbound only from 0800z to 2000z and Westbound from 2000z to 0800z. 
A series of ATS or OTR supplemental airways [OTR 14, OTR 15, and OTR 16] providing access/egress for the above airways when entry/exit is not made via the eastern gateways for the trans-Pacific routes. 
Position reports, using geographical coordinates, are required when passing each 10 degrees of longitude in even multiples of 10 degrees. 
Position reports, using geographic coordinates, are required at each 10 degrees of longitude. 
Position reports by aircraft traversing 10 degrees of longitude in one hour and 20 minutes or less are required only at alternate designated checkpoints [by name] as indicated on the chart. Slower aircraft must report at each designated airport. 
Ops Manual 4.7.1
 



The NOPAC Composite Route System is comprised of how many ATS routes that transit the North Pacific between Alaska and Japan?  
  Five.  
     NOPAC ROUTE PROCEDURES: 
The NOPAC Composite Route System is comprised of 5 Air Traffic Services [ATS] routes that transit the North Pacific between Alaska and Japan.

The 2 northern routes are used for westbound traffic. 
The 3 southern routes are used for eastbound traffic except that R-591 or G-344 may be used for westbound traffic crossing the Tokyo/Anchorage FIR between 2200 UTC and 0600 UTC. 
R-591 AND G-344 will never be used simultaneously as westbound tracks due to restraints in TYO ACC/s airspace. G-344 will not be utilized when R-591 is designated as a westbound track to eliminate crossing traffic situations. 
If R-591 has been designated as a PACOTS route between the hours of 2000 UTC and 0600 UTC it becomes a westbound route. R-591 is not available between the hours of 2000 and 2200 UTC and 0600 UTC and 0800 UTC when designated as a westbound PACOTS track. 
If G-344 has been designated as a route between the hours of 2200 UTC and 0600 UTC it becomes a westbound route. G-344 is not available between the hours of 2000 UTC and 2200 UTC and 0600 UTC and 0800 UTC when designated as a westbound PACOTS track. G-344 is closed to traffic from 2000 UTC and 0600 UTC when R-591 is designated as a westbound PACOTS track. 
Ops Manual 4.7.2 
 



Aircraft not approved for RNP-10 ops flying eastbound on G-344 will fly at or above:  
 
  FL 410.  
 
     NOPAC ROUTE PROCEDURES 
The composite routes are as follows:

R-220, R-580, R-591 and G-344. 

Required Navigation Performance 10 [RNP-10] and RVSM is implemented in the North Pacific Route System [NOPAC]. ATS routes and NOPAC transition routes [PACOTS] which cross, join or diverge from the NOPAC within the Anchorage FIR are also RNP-10. Aircraft flight planning these routes between the altitudes of FL 310 and FL 390, inclusive, must Have RNP-10 approval. Aircraft must have RVSM approval for operation on these routes between FL 290 and FL 390, inclusive. RNP-10 shall be the primary lateral non-radar separation standard between aircraft. Oceanic separation will be used where appropriate, and composite separation will be used on a tactical basis, if required. 
Aircraft not approved for RNP-10 operations shall flight plan one of the following: 

Westbound on R220: Available altitudes are FL 280, FL 290 and at or above FL 410. 
Eastbound on A-590: Available altitudes are FL 280, FL 290 and at or above FL 410 
Eastbound on G-344: Available altitudes are FL 280, FL 290 and at or above FL 410. 
Ops Manual 4.7.2
 



What is the lateral separation standards on NOPAC routes within the Anchorage FIR at FL 270?  
  100 nm.  
     SEPARATION STANDARDS 
Lateral separation standards will be applied on NOPAC routes and NOPAC transition routes within the Anchorage FIR as follows:

At/Below FL 270: 100 nm. 
At/Above FL 280: 50 nm between RNP-10 approved aircraft; 100 nm if aircraft on parallel route are not both RNP-10 approved. 
Composite Separation: The combination of 50 nm lateral and 100 ft. vertical may be applied between aircraft on parallel routes if either or both aircraft are not RNP-10 approved. 
Ops Manual 4.7.4
 



How is the fact that an aircraft is approved for RNP-10 designated on the ICAO flight plan?  
 
  "R" on block 10.  
     FLIGHT PLANS 
To show that aircraft and operator have been approved for RNP-10 by the State of the Operator or Registry and that the aircraft can meet RNP-10 over the entire RNP-10 route, the operator must annotate block 10 of the ICAO flight plan with the letter “R”. Aircraft that do not meet these requirements shall not annotate the letter “R”.

RNP-10 aircraft may flight plan any of the NOPAD routes with the following altitude restrictions:

R-220: FL 280 and all odd cardinal altitudes at and above FL 290 
R-580: All odd cardinal altitudes FL 310 through FL 390 
A-590: FL 280 and all odd cardinal altitudes at and above FL 290 
R-591: All odd cardinal altitudes FL 310 through FL 390 
G-344: Westbound and all odd cardinal altitudes Fl 310 through FL 390 
Eastbound FL 280 and all odd cardinal altitudes at and above FL 290 
Non-RNP-10 aircraft shall flight plan as follows:

Westbound: R-220 only available altitudes are FL 280, FL 290 and at or above FL 410 
Eastbound: A-590 at any time, or G-344 when available for eastbound flow. Available altitudes are Fl 280, FL 290 and at or above FL 410 
Ops Manual 4.7.5
 



Direct voice communications between Anchorage, Tokyo and Khabarovsk ACC allows coordination between these facilities for which of these situations?  
 
  Loss of communication.  
 
  Unidentified aircraft in CIS FIR's.  
 
  Unlawful seizure of aircraft.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     ANCHORAGE/TOKYO/KHABAROVSK COMMUNICATIONS 
Direct voice communications between Anchorage ARTCC, Tokyo ACC and Khabarovsk ACC allows coordination between these facilities to assist civil aircraft in emergency situations. These situations include:

Aircraft mechanical problems requiring immediate landing. 
Unlawful seizure of aircraft. 
Loss of communication. 
Unidentified aircraft in CIS FIR’s. 
Possible entry of aircraft into CIS FIR’s. 
Ops Manual 4.7.9
 



If an aircraft is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, a revised clearance shall, whenever possible, be obtained after initiating any action, using the radio telephone distress or urgent signals as appropriate.  
 
     
 
  False.  
 
     
     IN-FLIGHT CONTINGENCIES 
If an aircraft experiences navigational difficulties, it is essential that the pilot inform ATC as soon as the condition is apparent, so that appropriate action can be taken, as necessary, to prevent conflict with other aircraft. 
If an aircraft is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, a revised clearance shall, whenever possible, be obtained prior to initiating any action, using the radio telephone distress or urgent signals as appropriate. 
If prior clearance cannot be obtained, an air traffic control clearance shall be obtained at the earliest possible time; and, in the meantime, the aircraft shall broadcast its position [including the ATS route designator] and intentions on 121.5 at suitable intervals until air traffic control clearance is received. 
NOTE: In such circumstances, communication with certain stations on VHF may also be practical, i.e., Anchorage Center on 118.5 at Cold Bay, 124.4 at Dutch Harbor, 119.1a or 128.2 at St. Paul Island, 119.1 or 128.2 at Shemya or 126.4.

Ops Manual 4.7.11
 



During an inflight contingency, an aircraft able to maintain its assigned altitude should climb/descend 500 ft, remaining a lateral separation of at least:  
 
  25 nm.  
     IN-FLIGHT CONTINGENCIES 
If unable to comply with the provisions of the above paragraph, the aircraft should leave its assigned route by turning 90 degrees to the right or left, whenever this is possible. The direction of the turn should be determined by the position of the aircraft relative to the route system, i.e. whether the aircraft is outside, at the edge of, or within the system, the levels allocated to adjacent routes, and other known traffic, as appropriate. 
NOTE: Aircraft operating on ATS route R-220 under these circumstances should, if possible, avoid turning northward to leave the route due to its proximity to the boundary between Anchorage/Tokyo and the Commonwealth of Independent States FIR’s.

An aircraft able to maintain its assigned altitude should, nevertheless, climb or descend 500 ft. while acquiring and maintaining in either direction, a track laterally separated by 25 nm from its assigned route. 
An aircraft not able to maintain its assigned altitude should start its descent while turning to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 25 nm from its assigned route. For subsequent level flight, a level should be selected which differs by 500 ft. from those normally used. 
Ops Manual 4.7.11
 



In the CEPAC, RVSM is used in what areas?  
 
  Between FL 290 and FL 390 inclusive.  
     CENTRAL EAST PACIFIC [CEPAC] 
There are 6 designated airways serving Hawaii and U.S. mainland: 3 airways each between the Oakland and Honolulu area and between the Los Angeles and Maui area [refer to Jeppesen chart P [H/L] 1.

2 airways in each group are normally one-way; the third is used for both directions. Altitude assignments at FL 290 and above are as depicted on the chart. 
Position reports by aircraft traversing 10 degrees of longitude in one hour and 20 minutes or less are required only at alternate designated checkpoints [by names] as indicated on the chart. Slower aircraft must report at each designated checkpoint. 
The Central East Pacific [CEPAC] system is the organized route system between Hawaii and California. The geographic area on the CEPAC is that airspace from 100 nm N and W or ATS route R-463 to 100 nm S and E of ATS route R-578. 7 ATS routes, R-463, R-464, R-465, R-585, R-576, R-577, and R-578 are the primary routes within the CEPAC. In addition, there are several transition fixes.

RVSM is used in this area between FL 290-390 inclusive. Conventional separation is applied above or below RVSM Flight Levels. Aircraft that are not RVSM certified may fly in RVSM airspace only with prior approval from the controlling agency.

Ops Manual 4.8.1
 



What does an "X" on Item 10 of the ICAO flight plan represent?  
 
  MNPS.  
     ATC FLIGHT PLAN CONSIDERATION 
An “X” and a “W” indicate the MNPS and RVSM approval status of the aircraft, respectively, in Item 10 of the ICAO flight plan. The Oceanic Entry Point, Mach number, and each point where a speed or flight level change occurs must be listed in Item 15 of the ICAO flight plan. Item 18 of the ICAO flight plan is used for entering supplemental information or remarks. These remarks may include possible alternative flight levels, aircraft registration, and Estimated Elapsed Time [EET] to the Oceanic Entry Point or other significant required points. The above information is automatically input into the ICAO flight plan by the Jeppesen flight planning software, except for possible alternative flight levels.

NOTE: An ATC clearance does not constitute in itself an approval to enter MNPS or RVSM airspace.

Ops Manual 4.10.3
 




Flights operating between North America and Europe via the North Pole are considered as operating in a  
  North-South direction.  
     The ATC approved Mach number will be included in each clearance given by the respective Control Center. 
When planning to operate at a distance of 60 nm or less from the Northern or Southern boundaries of Gander or Shanwick Oceanic, Flight Plans shall also be addressed to the nearest adjacent NAT Center.

For flights operating in a generally East-West direction, flight plans are to be broken in 10 degree Meridian intervals, and generally, North-South flights in 5 degree latitude intervals. The distance between reporting points should not exceed hourly intervals in either case.

Flights operating between North America and Europe via the North Pole are considered as operating in a North-South direction.

For flights conducted entirely on one of the organized NAT tracks, the route will be defined by the abbreviation “NAT” followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

Flights wishing to join or leave an OTS at some intermediate point are considered Random and full route details must be specified. The track letter is not to be used to abbreviate any portion of the flight.

Ops Manual 4.10.3
 



Prior to any long range navigation sector, all IRS’s must be shut down to eliminate residual drifts.  
 
  True.  
     Prior to any long range navigation sector, all IRS’s must be shut down to eliminate residual drifts. A full re-alignment period will then be required and if possible should be made as close to ETD as possible [alignment can take up to 17 minutes at some latitudes]. The most accurate position available should be entered. It is essential that the aircraft is not moved while the ALIGN light is illuminated. Care must be taken, particularly in the vicinity of the equator or prime meridian, to ensure that the correct ramp position co-ordinates are entered. 
The PIC must ensure that BOTH pilots must INDEPENDENTLY check the present position against an authoritative reference source, including a time check.

Insertion errors may cause the ALIGN light to flash. Proceed with caution and crosscheck the source of the position co-ordinates against some other authoritative document.

Ops Manual 4.11.3
 



Circling the waypoints on the Master Document signifies what?  
 
  The correct coordinates have been checked by each pilot independently.  
     Compare the FMS and the Flight Plan [CFP], and annotate the Master Document in the following manner: 
Each waypoint is entered into the FMS by the normal methods, and the waypoint numbers generated [i.e., 5010N, PBD01] annotated against the relevant waypoint on the Master Document if it does not appear on the CFP exactly as from each pilot. 
Each waypoint is to be CIRCLED on the Master Document to signify that the correct coordinates have been checked independently by each pilot. 
The CIRCLED waypoint is CROSSED OUT with a single diagonal to signify that the track and distance to that waypoint has been checked independently by each pilot before flight. For tracks that are off airways or ADR’s, the TRUE tracks from the CFP and the FMS should be compared. 
NOTE: The pilot checking the FMS route against the Master Document should always work from the CDU to the Master Document as this may lessen the risk of “seeing what he expects to see” rather than what is actually displayed. It may also help to avoid errors if the Pilot who loaded the FMS reads back the tracks and distances from the CDU, without reference to the CFP, so that the other Pilot can cross-check the figures as they are read out.

Ops Manual 4.11.3
 



Which procedure is correct for a two pilot crew to use when entering waypoint data into the navigation system?  
 
  One crewmember enters the waypoints directly from the flight plan while the other verifies the coordinates.  
 
    In addition to confirming operation of the navigation system, insure that the equipment is properly programmed. This is a procedure which should not be rushed: 
Waypoint coordinates will be inserted into the computers by reference to the master flight plan. 
All navigation information will be programmed by one flight crewmember and verified by another crewmember. 
Verify that the same waypoint loading sequence is used for each system. Using the legend discussed in paragraph 4, indicate on the flight plan that the present position and waypoints have been entered and crosschecked. If time becomes a factor, verify only that the first 2 or 3 waypoints are correct. Verify the balance as soon as workload permits. 
When using systems such as INS or GPS, which navigate during ground operation, crosscheck present position, taxi distance or groundspeed (as appropriate) prior to takeoff. The check is conducted to confirm the proper operation of the system and to insure that “present position” remains reasonable. 
While stationary, note and record the INS/GPS ground speed position. 
Carry out an HF and SELCAL check, if possible, but not if refueling is taking place. If contact is not established, a further attempt should be made when airborne before reaching the area of reduced coverage of navigation facilities. 
Ops Manual 4.11.4
 



FMS accuracy may be achieved by comparing FMS computation from the fix page against the:  
 
  VOR/DME raw data.  
     AFTER DEPARTURE: 
A check of FMS and IRS accuracy must be made before entering any area of reduced coverage of navigation aids. FMS accuracy may be achieved by comparing raw data from a VOR/DME with FMS computation from the fix page. IRS accuracy can be confirmed by comparison of the IRS’ with the FMS position and/or the GPS position.

Select TRUE [if available] before reaching the area of reduced coverage of navigation aids.

For the B737, the APU must be started and running prior to reaching a point farther than 60 minutes from an adequate alternate airport and kept running for the duration of the ETOPS flight.

Listen on the appropriate VHF frequencies: 121.5 & 123.45 MHz [North Atlantic], 126.7 MHz [Africa].

Ops Manual 4.11.4
 



How often should the GMT and FMS/INS position readouts on the plotting chart be checked?  
  10 minutes after passing each waypoint.  
     APPLICATION OF THE PLOTTING CHART 
A course line will be drawn on the chart for the oceanic portion of the flight. Referring to the master flight plan, label all waypoints with their respective latitudes and longitudes. N53.00.0 W040.00.0 would be labeled as 53N 40W on the chart. The accuracy of the information developed from the plotting charts can be realized only if care is taken when making the plots and all notations are neat and legible.

As the flight progresses in oceanic airspace, plotting the aircraft’s position on the chart will confirm that the flight is proceeding in accordance with the clearance. Approximately 10 minutes after passing each waypoint, note the GMT and FMS/INS position readouts on the plotting chart. Plot this position. If the plotted position is laterally offset, the flight may be deviating from the assigned track and this possibility should be investigated by a review of the possibilities presented in the Abnormal Navigation Procedures section of this manual.

Ops Manual 4.12.2
 



What data is to be entered on the plotting chart for the point of departure?  
 
  Estimated time of departure.  
 
  Date.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Tail number.  
     POSITION REPORTS 
Flight Following should receive position reports from every extended overwater flight. Flight Followers should plot the flight-planned route on the appropriate plotting chart and enter the position report information on the plotting chart.

The data to be entered on the plotting chart for the point of departure [POD] are the tail number, flight number, date and ETD. The data to be entered at each oceanic waypoint are the estimated time enroute [ETE], estimated time of arrival [ETA], actual time enroute [ATE], actual time of arrival [ATA], estimated fuel remaining [EFR], actual fuel on board [AFOB], and the next reporting point.

Ops Manual 4.13.1
 



Should the computer element of the Navigation System fail, the basic output of the IRS [LAT/LONG, drift and ground speed] will not be available.  
 
  False.  
     
     NORTH ATLANTIC 
ONE system [of two operational systems] fails BEFORE TAKEOFF

If the remaining system is operative, the Pilot may file a new Flight Plan using the SPECIAL CONTINGENCY ROUTES or obtain a clearance above or below MNPSA. 
ONE system [of two operational systems] fails BEFORE ENTRY INTO MNPSA

The Pilot should consider: 

1) Landing at a suitable airport before the MNPSA boundary, or returning to the airport of departure.

2) Obtaining a clearance via one of the SPECIAL CONTINGENCY ROUTES.

3) Westbound: The clearance for the routing via the SPECIAL CONTINGENCY ROUTE is obtained from the Shanwick Clearance Deliver Frequency, and the rerouting to the new OCA boundary from the Domestic ATC. Eastbound: Request both clearances from the Controlling ATC.

4) Obtaining a re-clearance below or above MNPSA.

Should the computer element of the Navigation System fail, the basic output of the IRS [LAT/LONG, drift and ground speed] should be available unimpaired. Provided a suitable plotting chart is onboard and the cleared route has been plotted:

1) Extract mean true tracks between waypoints.

2) Use the basic IRS/GPS outputs to adjust heading to maintain mean track and calculate ETA’s.

3) At intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot LAT/LONG position on the chart and adjust heading to regain track.

Ops Manual 4.14.2
 



If you are using NDB as the primary source for long range oceanic navigation the usable service will be limited to how many nautical miles?  
 
  75.  
     The use of an NDB as the “primary” source of navigation for long-range oceanic flight presents numerous limitations and restrictions that are inherent in low frequency radio equipment and the low frequency signals they receive. These include: 
NDB Navigation Aids of the highest power [2000 or more watts], which are maintained and flight-checked as suitable for air navigation, are limited in their usable service and/or reception range to no more than 75 nm from the facility, at any altitude. 
Although a pilot may be able to receive standard [AM/amplitude modulation] broadcast stations with NDB equipment, primary dependence on these facilities for air navigation is a questionable operating practice. 
The following are some of the inherent problems associated with reception of these stations: 

Infrequent identification of the station. 
Identification of foreign language stations may be impossible without some knowledge of the language. 
Transmitter sites are not always co-located with studio facilities. 
Termination of service without notice. 
Weather systems causing erratic and unreliable reception of signal. 
Atmosphere disturbances causing erratic and unreliable reception of signal. 
No flight checks conducted to verify the suitability and reliability of the facility and its signal for use in air navigation. 
Fluctuation [bending] of signal due to “shoreline/mountain” effect. 
Standard broadcast stations are not dedicated for air navigation purposes. 
Ops Manual 4.15.1
 



 A manual update should not be made on the INS unless there is a gross error of:  
 
  6 nm.  
 
     INS SPECIAL CONSIDERATIONS 
If remote loading capabilities are used, care must be taken to insure that waypoints are entered and crosschecked separately on each individual INS to avoid errors. In addition, the software must be verified and the ground speed checked:

At “turn on,” verify the software number to insure that the checklist and operating procedures agree with the loaded program. 
While the aircraft is stationary and the INS is selected to the NAV mode, observe the ground speed readout. A reading of more than a few knots may indicate a faulty unit—or a less reliable unit at best. If an error is detected, a check of the malfunction codes must be made. 
Since INS’s essentially are accurate and reliable, a manual update should not be made unless a gross error of 6 nm exists. An effort to correct smaller errors could result in human induced errors of greater magnitude. However, recognizing that errors generally increase with the time and that the INS is not self-correcting, a DME update should be accomplished whenever possible.

Ops Manual 4.15.2
 



When using GPS, the navigation data is based on the GPS operated by:  
 
  The United States.  
 
     Navigation data is based upon use of only the global positioning system [GPS] operated by the U.S. Use of an approved GPS may replace one of the other means of long-range navigation in an aircraft. A single GPS installation may also be used on short oceanic routes that require only one means of long-range navigation. 
The GPS’ Pilot’s guide must be immediately available to a flight crew whenever navigation is predicated on the use of the system. The Operational Revision Status [ORS] of the unit’s Pilot’s Guide must match the ORS level annunciated in the self-test mode. The system must utilize ORS level 20 or later FAA approved revision. The data on the self-test page must be verified prior to use.

Ops Manual 4.15.3
 



When should an INS/COMPASS CHECK be accomplished?  
 
  During cruise flight prior to entering oceanic airspace.  
     INS/COMPASS CHECK 
Perform an INS/COMPASS check during cruise flight prior to, or as soon as possible after entering oceanic airspace. The purpose is to obtain deviation values for the magnetic compass systems and to determine the relative accuracy of INS heading outputs if needed later in the flight.

Simultaneously read and record both INS true headings and both magnetic compass indications. To the mean of the INS readings, apply the local variation value to obtain the magnetic heading. Compare this value with the magnetic heading compass readings to obtain a deviation number [deviation between INS and compass only] and retain for further use to determine if a system is faulty.

When in doubt of the accuracy of an INS system, check the malfunction codes for any indications and if to no avail, perform the testing cycle [the reverse of the above].

Ops Manual 4.15.5
 



The calculation for Equi-Time Points will be made on all overwater flight exceeding:  
  2 hrs.  
 
     The Equal-Time-Point [ETP] will be computed for all flights that are conducted over water or over sparsely populated areas, which exceed two hours flying time. 
DEFINITION: The position down track at which the time to continue to destination with an engine inoperative or to return to the departure point is identical. This critical point is the point on the track when time and fuel to divert to the chosen enroute alternate is required.

Ops Manual 4.15.6
 



Knowledge of Point of No Return and Radius of Action calculations are a requirement when operating under:  
 
  ETOP's 180 minute rules.  
 
     Knowledge of Point of No Return and Radius of Action calculations are a requirement when operating under ETOP’s 180 minutes rules. 
Radius of action is effectively an all engine operating return to point of departure scenario.

Point of no return deals with an engine out situation where following an engine failure, a decision whether to return to the point of departure or to continue can be safely made.

Ops Manual 4.15.7
 



A diversion airport may need to be selected under which of these conditions?  
 
  Equipment malfunction.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Navigation equipment malfunction.  
 
  Passenger requirements.  
     If a diversion is necessary, whether due to aircraft status, fuel state, navigation equipment malfunction, or passenger requirements, careful consideration of all available options must be made. 
The diversion airport should be selected on the basis of the remaining fuel, airport conditions and facilities, passenger handling capabilities and aircraft performance limitations. If the diversion is the result of an aircraft system malfunction or an incident, safety factors may limit these conditions.

The minimum fuel for a diversion should include enough fuel for the burnoff to a landing at a diversion airport and thereafter either enough fuel to fly for 30 minutes at 1500 ft. above the airport elevation at standard temperatures or to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed, whichever is greater.

An ATC clearance should be requested and received prior to any diversion. The following flight plan information may be required and should be available when requesting this clearance:

Diversion airport 
Route of flight 
Altitude 
Estimated time enroute 
Endurance [hours and minutes] 
The issuance of an ATC clearance to a diversion airport, although required, should not hinder the PIC from using his or her emergency authority when he or she deems it necessary to continue without obtaining one.

Ops Manual 4.15.11
 



What is the primary variable of Dead Reckoning?  

  Wind direction and velocity.  

     The basis of all navigation is Dead Reckoning [DR]. All other methods of finding the way from one point to another are used in conjunction with DR procedures. The primary variable of DR is the wind direction and velocity. Knowledge of the wind will enable a pilot to determine the compass heading to make good the desired path over the earth and the speed being made along that desired path. If those 2 items are known, the dead reckoning problem is essentially solved. The wind then is the key element, and, if a pilot keeps a vigilant eye on actual winds during the flight and observes their relationship to forecast conditions, the dead reckoning situation will not pose a problem. 
Ops Manual 4.15.12
 




If unable to receive an amended ATC clearance, it is the responsibility of the air crew to:  
 
  Execute a deviation under the PIC's emergency authority.  
 
     Distress call [“MAYDAY”, 3 times] alerts all listening parties of an emergency requiring priority handling and possible assistance from other sources. 
Urgency call [“PAN”, 3 times] alerts all listing parties of a special handling condition which will receive ATC priority for issuance of a clearance or assistance. [For example, if the clearance request was number 10 in the radio operator’s cue for an ATC clearance or acknowledgement, this flight would now receive immediate assistance or handling].

If when flying a transoceanic route and a weather deviation is necessary, the aircrew should broadcast an urgency signal on the assigned ATC frequency and request a deviation. If unable to receive an amended ATC clearance, it is the aircrew’s responsibility to execute the deviation under the PIC’s emergency authority. In addition, broadcast an urgency signal on 121.5 MHz and all other appropriate frequencies stating:

1) Flight Identification

2) Flight level

3) Track code or ATS route designator

4) Position

5) Intentions and any other important information

Ops Manual 4.16.2
 



A specific navigation fix where a flight transitions from short-range navigation [VOR/DME, NDB] to long-range navigation or vice versa is called:  

  A Gateway.  
     DEFINITIONS: 
GATEWAY: A specific navigation fix where a flight transients from short-range navigation [VOR/DME, NDB] to long-range navigation or vice versa. Such fixes are ordinarily airway navigation facilities, located at or near oceanic airspace entry or exit points.

DEAD RECKONING[DR]: A method of directing an aircraft and estimating it’s position by the application of time, direction, and speed data from a previously determined position to a previously determined position.

WAYPOINT: A geographic point specified for navigation, flight planning, or air traffic control purposes.

TIME CHECK: Accurate time is essential to precise navigation. Obtain a time check by tuning to one of the stations transmitting a Universal Coordinated Time [UTC] signal.

Ops Manual 4.17.1
 



Within 5 minutes of the waypoint, both pilots will verify that the present and subsequent waypoint in the navigation computers agree with the current ATC clearance  
 
  False.  
 
     
When within 2 minutes of a waypoint [normally, when the waypoint alert light illuminates], the following practices are to be followed: 
1) Record all parameters on the master document under the printed information. These will include: Time, Wind, True Air Speed, Ground Speed, Magnetic Course, and Actual Time of Arrival.

2) Both pilots will verify that the present and subsequent waypoint in the navigation computers agree with the current ATC clearance

3) Overhead the waypoint, both pilots will observe that the aircraft turns in the correct direction and that the heading and mileage of the next waypoint agree with the Flight Plan. 

4) Make the ATC position report, cross out the waypoint number and note the progress of the flight in comparison with the estimated times and fuel.

5) Approximately 10 minutes after passing each waypoint, write the time and position readouts on the plotting chart and plot that position. Check that the plotted position corresponds to the latest clearance and track.

6) When the aircraft is approaching the inbound gateway navigation aid, de-select INS steering and acquire the appropriate inbound radial/bearing as soon as it becomes evident that the navaid is providing reliable navigation information. The aircraft then is flown on track by means of radio navigation, overflying the facility that becomes the primary navigational guidance after leaving the oceanic area.

Ops Manual 4.17.5
 



Which of these procedures should be followed to help reduce navigational errors in the event of an off track deviation?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Use the autopilot knob to turn the aircraft in the desired direction.  
 
  Set the steering INS/GPS CDU data selector to XTK/TKE.  
 
  Both pilots will monitor the deviation for subsequent return to on course.  
     OFF TRACK DEVIATIONS 
Intentional Deviation: No pilot may deviate from the assigned route without an ATC clearance [91.123], if an ATC clearance has been received or if in an emergency situation such as severe weather and a deviation is necessary, care must be taken not to induce gross navigational errors. The following procedures should be adhered to and have been found effective to reduce navigational errors:

1) Use the autopilot knob to turn the aircraft in the desired direction.

2) Observe that the altitude hold function of the autopilot does not disengage.

3) Set the steering INS/GPS CDU data selector to XTK/TKE, in order to provide a continuous display of crosstrack data.

4) The CDI will remain in the INS/GPS position and display the course. Even when more than 8 nm off track, the pegged needle on the instrument is a reminder of that fact. In addition, it will confirm whether the aircraft is tracking towards, away from, or parallel to the desired track.

5) Use the control knob to return to the desired track and steer using guidance from the XTK indication on the INS’s CDU.

6) Both pilots will monitor the deviation for subsequent return to on course. The autopilot re-engagement will also be closely watched for proper INS/GPS interface.

7) After the course capture has been accomplished, establish the assigned Mach number and advise ATC of the deviation.

Ops Manual 4.18.1
 



For enroute diversion across the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow without prior ATC clearance and the aircraft is able to descend below FL 285 or climb above FL 410 what direction should you turn?  
 
 
  Toward the alternate airport.  
     For enroute diversion across the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow without prior ATC clearance and the aircraft is able to descend below FL 285 or climb above FL 410: 
1) Turn toward the alternate airport and acquire a track which is separated laterally by 50 nm from the assigned track, and

b) If above FL 410, climb or descend 300m (1000 ft) to an offset FL, or

c) If below FL 410, climb or descend 150 m [500 ft] to an offset FL, or

d) If at FL 410, climb 300m (1000 ft) or descend 150m (500 ft) to an offset FL.

2) Fly the offset track while, if feasible, expediting descent to an altitude below FL 285 or climb above FL 410; and

3) When below FL 285 or above FL 410, proceed towards the alternate while maintaining a level which differs from those normally used by 150 m (500 ft) if below FL 410 or 300m (1000 ft) if above FL 410.

Ops Manual 4.18.2

 
    
 
6.  When one long range navigation fails after crossing the OCA boundary, what needs to be accomplished?  
 
  Continue on the current ATC clearance.  
 
  Monitor the compass systems.  
 
  All of the answes are correct.  
 
  Advise ATC of partial loss of long-range navigation system.  
     LOSS OF ONE NAV SYSTEM 

Before Oceanic Boundary: If one long-range navigation system is not functioning properly or has failed prior to the OCA boundary, consider the following: 

1) Land at a suitable airport. 

2) Ask for a "Revised Routing" over the special routes discussed above if in the NAT region. 

3) If none of these is possible, request clearance for flight above or below MNPS airspace. 

After Oceanic Boundary: When one long-range navigation fails after crossing the OCA boundary, the following should be accomplished: 

1) Consider returning to departure airport, or 

2) Continue on the current ATC clearance. 

3) Assess the performance of the remaining system and check it at each 20 minute interval. 

4) Advise ATC of partial loss of long-range navigation system unless able to use normal radio aids for navigation. 

5) Monitor the compass systems. 

6) On the plotting chart, plot the flight’s progress at the time of loss of one system and with time intervals not exceeding 20 minutes thereafter. 

7) In all cases, watch for loss of systems tied into the INS gyro.

Ops Manual 4.18.4
 




If you lose both long-range navigation systems after the Oceanic Boundary, you should offset your altitude by:  

  500 ft.  
     LOSS OF BOTH NAV SYSTEMS 
Before takeoff or Before Oceanic Boundary: Do not continue.

After Oceanic Boundary: 

1) Notify ATC that primary long-range navigation systems are inoperative.

2) Use other aircraft for wind and ground speed information.

3) Offset altitude by 500 ft.

4) Broadcast estimated position on 121.5 MHz.

5) Attempt Line of Position or a fix with any navigation equipment available. Plot the position of the last position report.

6) Use Dead Reckoning to continue or divert, whichever seems more prudent. Note compass heading and use computer flight plan or log as a guide for headings and ETA’s.

7) If desired, and other methods fail, request an HF DF steer or fix. This service can be requested through regular ATC or ARINC frequencies.

Ops Manual 4.18.5
 


How many rafts should be aboard for extended overwater operations?  
 
 
  The amount necessary to accommodate all passengers in the event of the loss of a raft of the largest capacity.  

     When extended overwater operations are to be conducted, the PIC will ensure that the following will be provided and readily accessible to the occupants: 
1) At least one life vest equipped with an approved survivor locator light for each occupant that is within easy reach of each seated occupant and must be readily removable from the aircraft.

2) Enough life rafts equipped with an approved survivor locator light with proper buoyancy to carry all occupants. The rafts will be readily removable from the aircraft. Unless excess rafts of enough capacity are provided the buoyancy and seating capacity beyond the rated capacity of the rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of the loss of one raft of the largest capacity.

3) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each life raft.

4) All of the equipment listed in FAR 135.167[a][2], and 135.167[b] and 121.339 as appropriate.

5) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, must be attached to each raft.

Ops Manual 4.19.1
 



What is the floor and ceiling of the RVSM airspace?  
 
  FL 285 to FL 420.  
     Reduced Vertical Separation Minima [RVSM] is a system whereby certain aircraft performance criteria is implemented to insure the safe and accurate vertical separation of aircraft at 1,000 ft. [300 m] intervals. Currently RVSM requirements have been implemented in the North Atlantic Minimum Performance Navigation Specifications [MNPS] airspace as well as selected other airspace such as European airspace and the WATRS region airspace of the North Atlantic; between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive [i.e. ceiling of FL 420 and floor of FL 285]. Lateral separation in the North Atlantic track system will remain at the existing 60-mile separation dimension. The only aircraft that can operate in said airspace equipped to maintain flight within the RVSM flight envelope with nominal altimetry system error. The automatic altitude control system installed in the aircraft must be capable of maintaining an altitude of plus or minus 65 ft. in straight and level flight in non-turbulent, non-gust conditions. 

Ops Manual 4.21.1
 



For RVSM flight, both primary altimeters must be checked on the ground that they differ no more than:  
 
 
  75 ft.  
     For aircraft that are being dispatched to operate within RVSM airspace, the PIC must insure that both primary altimeters differ by no more than 75 ft. on the ground. This check must be done prior to flight. Additionally, the altitude alert system, transponder and altitude control system must be tested prior to departure. Failure of any of these systems must be rectified prior to flight. During preflight, pilots will closely inspect the static port system for damage and then ensure that all write ups of RVSM related equipment have been corrected and properly cleared. 
During the preflight weather briefing, the PIC should ensure that the planned route of flight will not encounter any moderate or severe turbulence that could affect the PIC’s ability to control and maintain a cleared and assigned altitude. As with any flight, the PIC must insure the proper clearance of any discrepancies that are indicated in the aircraft maintenance log prior to dispatch of any flight.

Ops Manual 4.21.3
 



During coast out and before entering RVSM, the PIC will check to see that the two primary altimeters read within:  
 
 
  200 ft. of each other.  
     Prior to entry of RVSM airspace, the PIC should insure full operation of the two primary altitude measurement systems, one automatic altitude control system and one altitude alerting device. Failure of any of these systems will require ATC to issue a new clearance. 
As with any flight the crew must insure that QNE is set on all altimeters at the appropriate phase of flight. Compliance with any and all ATC restrictions is of paramount concern. During the level off phase of flight a maximum of a 150 ft. overshoot/undershoot will be allowed of the automatic altitude control system. Then the aircraft must be flown at the cleared course flight level within the allowable level flight altitude tolerances.

During coast out and before entering RVSM regulated airspace the PIC will record the indicated altitude of both of the two primary altimeters as well as the standby altimeter. Both primary altimeters must read within 200 ft. of each other. There are no tolerance criteria for the standby altimeter. The PIC will then cross check and verify at one-hour intervals that the primary altimeters are registering within 200 ft. of each other. Said information will then be recorded and indicated on the computerized flight plan or navigation log. This record must be maintained for 6 months following a flight.

Ops Manual 4.21.4
 



Non-RVSM aircraft may fly in RVSM airsipace if:  
 
  On a delivery flight.  
 
     ATC may provide an altitude reservation for an MNPS approved aircraft but NON-RVSM approved to fly at RVSM levels ONLY if the aircraft: 
1) Is on a delivery flight, or

2) Was RVSM approved but following equipment failure is being returned to its base or

3) Is on a mercy or humanitarian flight.

Such an operation requires that OAC be contacted by telephone not more than 12 hours or not less than 4 hours prior to the departure time to obtain an altitude reservation. This approval and flight level are to be included in Item 18 of the ICAO Flight Plan.

Ops Manual 4.21.8
 



When in RVSM airspace, how often should the primary altimeters should be checked for accuracy?  
 
  Hourly.  
     WITHIN RVSM AIRSPACE 
Crosscheck periodically [approx. every hour] the primary altimeters, which should agree within 200 ft. If not, advise ATC immediately. If/when advised by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation exceeding 300 ft., return as soon as possible to the cleared FL or follow the Contingency Procedures Report immediately leaving or reaching any new cruising level, whether it will be following a re-clearance, step-climb, etc.

Ops Manual 4.21.10
 



Flight crew should pay extra attention:  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Aircraft operating restrictions and RVSM approval.  
 
  ATC phraseology.  
 
  Problems of visual perception.  
     SPECIAL EMPHASIS FACTORS 
Flight crews should pay extra attention to the following factors:

1) ATC phraseology.

2) Crew members cross-checking each other.

3) Use and limitations of the standby altimeter.

4) Problems of visual perception.

5) Characteristics of aircraft altitude capture mode.

6) Relationship between altimeter, auto altitude control and transponder.

7) Aircraft operating restrictions and RVSM approval.

Ops Manual 4.21.11
 



RNP-10 operations in the North Pacific [NOPAC] and Central East Pacific [CEPAC] state that the aircraft must maintain what percentage of the Along Track [ALTRK]?  
 
 
  95.  
     REQUIRED NAVIGATIONAL PERFORMANC4 
RNP-10

The Pacific Ocean, Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and North Polar Areas have and will continue to experience an extremely high rate of traffic growth. The numerical value associated with the statement RNP describes an allotted deviation value in miles from Cross Track [XTK] and Along Track [ALTRK]. For example, RNP-10 operations in the North Pacific [NOPAC] and Central East Pacific [CEPAC] state that the aircraft operating within this RNP-10 airspace must maintain +/- 10 nm XTK or ALTRK 95 % of the time the aircraft operates on a route in this airspace. Aircraft navigational systems must be capable of achieving a level of navigational performance accuracy consistent with the requirements of the new efficient airspace.

Ops Manual 4.22.1
 



The NOPAC system's two northern routes is utilized for westbound traffic at all times.  
 
 
  False.  
     NOPAC and CEPAC are designated into 2 predominant flow patterns. Eastbound peak flow occurs from 0800Z to 2000Z. Westbound flow peaks from 2200Z to 0800Z. The most critical altitudes are described to be between FL 310 to FL 410 inclusive. Currently the NOPAC system is comprised of five air traffic service routes. The two northern routes are used for westbound traffic, except that R580 is used for eastbound between 1000Z and 1700Z. The southern three routes are used for eastbound traffic, except A590 may be used for westbound traffic between the hours of 2300Z and 0500Z above FL 350. Above FL 290 separation is as follows: 1,000 ft. vertical separation and 50 nm lateral separation. CEPAC airspace extends between the west cost of U.S. and Hawaii. The route structure is comprised of six routes inclusive of the airspace extending from FL 290 and FL 410. The same general operating rules used for the NOPAC routes applies to these routes. 
Ops Manual 4.22.1
 


Aircraft operating during peak hours in NOPAC airspace must maintain a minimum speed of:  
 
 
  Mach .78.  
 
     FLIGHT PLANNING CONSIDERATIONS 
1) Verification that aircraft is approved for RNP-10 operations.

2) Verifying that the RNP-10 time limit has been taken into account. Include 75% probability for wind components.

3) Verify that the letter “R” is annotated in block 10 of the ICAO flight plan.

4) Requirements for GPS such as RAIM and FDE are met.

5) If required for a specific NAV system, accounting for any operating restriction related to RNP-10 approval.

6) Availability of NAVAID’s.

Aircraft operating in NOPAC airspace must maintain Mach .78 or greater during peak hours. If aircraft is unable to meet this restriction, off peak hours must be utilized. Flight plans for each composite route must be held on board the aircraft for expeditious clearance delivery.

Ops Manual 4.22.2
 



How is RNP approval designated on the ICAO flight plan?  
 
  "R" on block 10.  
     FLIGHT PLANNING FOR BRNAV RNP-5 AND RNP-10 AIRSPACE 
1) In addition to normal international flight planning there are several additional considerations for BRNAV RNP-5 and RNP-10 airspace.

2) The letter “R” is the ICAO designator for operator RNP approval. This letter will be used in block 10 of the ICAO flight plans.

3) An FDE Prediction Run Summary is required to be sent to aircraft that use GPS in RNP airspace. If a flight is delayed more than 2 hours past scheduled departure another Prediction Run Summary will be required.

4) An important concept of RNP is “navigation time”. This is the hours and minutes that INS navigation units are in the navigation mode. This time starts when the mode selector is placed in the NAV position. It is not block out to block in, or takeoff to touchdown time, it is entirely possible to have an INS in the NAV mode long before the aircraft actually starts to move. Any time an INS is in the NAV mode it can “drift” and lose accuracy.




With two operative IRS units but no GPS update available RNP-10 airspace navigation time is limited to:  
 
  6.8 hrs.  
 
     RNP-10 AIRSPACE 
GPS required. 
At least one operative IRS that is capable of receiving GPS position updates. 
FDE Prediction Run Summary required. 
With above equipment unlimited navigation time in RNP-10 airspace. 
With two operative IRS units but no GPS update available RNP-10 airspace navigation time is limited to 6.8 hours. 
BRNAV RNP-5 AIRSPACE

GPS required. 
At least one operative IRS that is capable of receiving GPS position updates. 
FDE Prediction Run Summary required when less than 24 Navstar satellites are operational. 
With above equipment unlimited navigation time in BRNAV RNP-5 airspace. 
With two operative IRS units but no GPS update available BRNAV RNP-5 airspace. 
Ops Manual 4.24.3
 



What is the former Soviet Union now known as?  
 
  Commonwealth of Independent States [CIS].  
 
     The geopolitical area, formerly known as the Soviet Union is now known as the Commonwealth of Independent States [CIS]. This section of the world is undergoing rapid and often unanticipated changes in the field of international and domestic aviation. 
Because of the new bilateral air transportation agreements between the U.S. and some of the CIS, a significant increase in air transportation between the two countries is expected. Operators of both large and small aircraft will be increasing scheduled and charter air service. Due to the short distance between the state of Alaska and Russia, significant increases in air traffic are expected in the far-eastern portion of this region. This area has traditionally been called the Soviet Far East [SFE].

Ops Manual 4.25.1
 



What is the primary document available concerning foreign aircraft operations within the Commonwealth of Independent States?  
 
  The Russia AIP.  
 

     The USSR AIP is the primary document available concerning foreign aircraft operations within most of the CIS, but this is rapidly changing and many states are now or will soon be publishing their own AIP’s. Because of the rapid change, operators should exercise extreme care in determining the status of the AIP to be used. The Aeronautical Information Service [AIS] publishes the USSR AIP, which is part of the Ministry of Civil Aviation [MCA] of Russia. It is published in both Russian and English and contains detailed flight operational requirements as well as terminal, airport, and instrument approach charts in ICAO format. It is available from the AIS on an annual subscription basis, including monthly revisions. The navigation charts and standard instrument approach procedures [SIAP] for Russia and other CIS’s domestic systems are not included in the AIP and are usually not available in English. Further information may be obtained from the Russian Embassy in Washington, D.C. Telephone No.: 202.628.7751 
Ops Manual 4.25.6
 



 What are the route widths over the CIS?  
 
  8 to 20 km.  
 
     Navigation on international routes within the CIS is permitted using Class I or Class II navigation systems. Route widths vary from 8 km to 20 km, as indicated in the USSR AIP. It is the pilot’s responsibility to keep the aircraft within established airway boundaries. Available altitudes also vary from one route to another as identified in the USSR AIP. 
When planning flights, operators must ensure that the desired and required altitudes are available for particular routes. This is especially important in the SFE, where there is usually only one route available for flights. As an example, from the Anadyr non-directional beacon [NDB] along A-81 on the eastern coast of Russia to the Troitskoye NDB there is no parallel airway for a distance of over 1600 miles. Deviation from this route due to weather requirements may be impossible to obtain.

Ops Manual 4.25.10
 



In the SFE, Class I enroute navigation on international routes is primarily accomplished using:  
 
  NDB.  
     In the SFE, Class I enroute navigation on international routes is primarily accomplished using NDB’s; however, numerous compatible VBF omni-directional radio range [VOR] transmitters will be installed in the coming years. In western Russia, compatible VOR transmitters are also used to define international routes. 
In certain situations, especially in the SFE, it may be necessary to require operators to use Class II navigation receivers to supplement Class I navigation receivers due to the distance between navigational aids [NAVAIDS] and the limited width of airways. Class II enroute navigation on international routes should be relatively simple, provided two conditions are properly addressed. The first condition is that, depending on the published route widths, length of flight, and type of Class II navigation equipment used, it may not be possible for an operator to maintain the course centerline accuracy required by the CIS. The second condition concerns the lack of VOR/DME facilities. This means that special consideration must be given by operators to navigation accuracy requirements when using inertial reference systems [IRS]. Again, it may not be possible to obtain the required navigation accuracy, unless, considering the specific route and length of flight, VOR/DME updates are provided to the IRS.

Ops Manual 4.25.10
 



Arrival and departure procedures are similar to U.S. standard terminal arrival routes [STAR] and standard instrument departures [SID].  
 
 
  True.  
 
     
     Terminal IAP’s at international airports within the CIS are conventional and should not be confusing to foreign operators. Arrival and departure procedures are similar to U.S. standard terminal arrival routes [STAR] and standard instrument departures [SID]. Radar vectoring is uncommon, so flight crewmembers should expect to fly the full-charted procedures published in the AIP or Jeppesen charts. Flight crewmembers should be aware that use of atmospheric pressure at airport elevation [QFE] is common and transitional levels vary from one sector to another. IAP’s are standard [instrument landing system – ILS, VOR, NDB] and, due to a lack of radar vectoring, full approaches [requiring a course reversal] are normally flown. Precision radar approaches are also very common throughout the CIS. Terminal IAP’s at domestic airports within the CIS are usually not published in English or readily available to foreign air carriers. Operators must obtain the necessary data and comply with the appropriate FAR’s concerning routes, airports, weather, and communication. CIS navigators, who are required for foreign aircraft operators within the domestic system, will carry enroute, terminal area, and instrument approach charts for use within the domestic system. These charts are generally available in Russian only. STARS, SIDS, enroute, terminal, and standard instrument approach [SIA] charts in English may be obtained from commercial sources and shall be utilized by the flight crew during all operations. Class II navigation capability will likely be required for operators navigating within the domestic system due to the inability of foreign aircraft to receive signals from the CIS VHF [RSBN] system. Many NAVAID’s [VBF (RSBN) and NDB] within the domestic system use identifiers that do not have an English Translation. 
Ops Manual 4.24.15
 



If you are planning a flight using international airports in the CIS, a request must be submitted at the very least by:  
 
 5 working days before departure.  
     FLIGHT APPROVAL 
According to both the USSR AIP and the International Flight Information manual [IFIM], an operator must receive written approval from MCA-Moscow before initiating a flight entering Russian airspace. Operators shall not request flight approval through any regional ministry or Aeroflot office. Any approval granted by a regional office should not be considered sufficient unless accompanied by approval from Ministry of Civil Aviation [MCA]-Moscow. Aircraft operators intending to utilize standard air corridors and international airports in the CIS should submit their request via telex directly to the MCA for Russian operations, far enough in advance so as to reach the ministry at least 5 working days [3 weeks suggested] before departure. For other CIS, the same procedure should be used if a Ministry of Civil Aviation exists. It is recommended at this time that the embassy of the state in question be contacted to obtain the status of their civil aviation control.

Ops Manual 4.25.17
 



Carefull planning must be accomplished for flights in the Soviet Far East [SFE], as the closest alternate airport could be:  
 
 500 nm from a given destination.  
     ALTERNATE AIRPORTS 
For flight planning purposes, especially in the SFE, operators must consider the location of, and routing to, suitable alternate airports. Fuel planning must be carefully considered due to potential difficulties with communications, diversion airport routings, and the lack of suitable airports in the SFE. It is common for the closest alternate airport to be over 500 nm from a given destination.

Ops Manual 4.25.11
 



Extended Range Twin Operations [ETOPS] is the operation of 2 engine aircraft over a route that is how far from an adequate aerodrome?  
 
  More than 60 minutes at the approved one engine cruise speed in standard conditions.  
 
     Extended Range Twin Operations [ETOPS]: the means available for the operation of two engine airplanes over a route that contains a point further than 1 hr. flying time, at the approved one engine cruise speed [under standard conditions] from an adequate aerodrome. 
The FAR’s specify that for commercial flights on aircraft operated under FAR 121 with ETOPS approval is required for flight more than 60 minutes, at single engine cruising speed, from a place at which the aircraft can land.

Extended Twin Operation is defined as any flight conducted, or intended to be conducted, over a route that contains a point further than 1 hr.’s flying time [in still air] at the normal one-engine inoperative speed from an “adequate” aerodrome. Many areas of the world fall into this category and general procedures have been designated to apply on such flights. Some routes have unique requirements, e.g. North Atlantic MNPS Airspace, and additional material is provided to cover the special circumstances.

Ops Manual 4.26.1
 



What is the threshold time?  
 
  60 minutes.  
     THRESHOLD TIME: This is 60 minutes. 
THRESHOLD DISTANCE: This is the distance traveled in still air in 60 minutes by an aircraft in normal single engine cruise after shutting down one engine. Essentially, this may be taken as 450 nm for the B737.

RULE TIME: This is the maximum diversion time in still air that any point on the route may be from a suitable aerodrome for landing. Rule Time is specified by the maximum authorized diversion time, e.g. 75, 120, 180 minutes.

RULE DISTANCE: This is the distanced traveled in still air by an aircraft, after shutting down one engine in normal cruise, descending to a specified level and flying at the established Rule Speed for the Rule Time.

Specific factors have been imposed upon the normal one-engine inoperative cruise speed to produce value for the Rule Speed. For the B737 the Rule Speed is 450 kts. TAS. When combined with the Rule Time of 180 minutes this gives a Rule Distance of 1350 nm for the B737.

Ops Manual 4.26.2
 
  
 


Who authorized the change from an ETOPS flight to a non-ETOPS route due to unserviceabilities?  
 
  Director of Operations.  
     COMPANY REQUIREMENTS 
PIC’s Responsibilities:

It is the PIC’s responsibility to ensure that no clearance is accepted which would take his aircraft outside the ETOPS envelope. 
While contingency procedures and plans are laid down by the Company, the PIC of the aircraft retains full responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft. 
AREA OF ETOPS OPERATION

ETOPS Operations are permitted if the crew is ETOPS qualified. 
OPERATION ON NON-ETOPS ROUTES

If, because of unserviceabilities or other reasons, an ETOPS flight is re-planned on a Non-ETOPS route, authority must first be obtained from the DO or CP. 
ADD’L NORMAL ETOPS PROCEDURES

Ensure that the ETOPS technical check has been certified in the Technical Log. 
Approaching the ETOPS Operating Area.: 
oPrior to crossing the 60-minute range circle it must be established that there has not been any degradation in equipment status that would preclude ETOPS capability. 

Within ETOPS Operating Area: 
Airfield actual and forecast weather reports should be monitored for all relevant adequate airfields associated with the route until they have no significance due to flight progress. It should be noted that standard AOM are applicable to this phase of flight.

Ops Manual 4.26.3-6
 



For ETOPS operations computer flight plans give ETP’s and corresponding CFR’s [Critical Fuel Required] based on:  
 
  Level cruise at 10,000 ft. at LRC.  
 
  One missed approach, and approach and landing.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  15 minutes hold at 1,500 ft.  
     ADD’L FUEL REQUIREMENTS FOR ETOPS FLIGHTS 
1) Extra fuel, in addition to the normal fuel formula, must be carried on ETOPS flights to ensure sufficient fuel is aboard for diversion at any stage of flight following the failure of any aircraft system.

2) The most critical fuel consumption case for all company aircraft is pressurization failure at a Critical Fuel Point [Equal Time Point] between suitable en-route alternates, emergency descent to 10,000 ft. and 2 engine cruise to an alternate.

3) Computer flight plans give ETP’s and corresponding CFR’s [Critical Fuel Required] based on the following:

A) All engine operating.

B) Emergency descent to 10,000 ft.

C) Level cruise at 10,000 ft. at LRC.

D) 250 kts. descent to 1,500 ft. at the alternate.

E) 15 minutes hold at 1,500 ft.

F) One missed approach, and approach and landing.

G) Contingency [5% of each of the above].

4) Company Flying Manuals give methods of calculation of both ETP’s and CFR’s for use when Computer Flight Plans.

5) Additional fuel must be carried, where necessary to meet CFR’s from calculations.

6) Enhanced weather minima apply for enroute alternates at the planning stage in ETOPS operations. These are specified in detail in Part C, Section 9.

Ops Manual 4.26.7
 



Following engine failure on any ETOPS operation, and on or above the NAT Track system you will need to:  
 
  Turn 90 degrees from the assigned track.  
 
     EMERGENCY PROCEDURES FOR ETOPS 
Following engine failure on any ETOPS operation, the following procedures should be carried out in a methodical manner:

1) PNF completes appropriate memory actions for the failure.

2) PF sets MCT on the live engine.

3) Consider requirement to turn 90 degrees from assigned track. If on, or above, the NAT Track System this will be necessary. 60 miles separate them, so at .80M the aircraft will take 3.5 to 4 minutes to reach a 30m separation.

4) Initiate descent using all available information from FMS [Cruise Page ENG OUT] and/or Emergency Checklist. The descent can be made in VNAV or FLCH at the drift down speed if a track parallel to the NAT Track system is in the general direction of the alternate. If not, then use FLCH and use high speed to get below the MNPS Airspace before turning towards the alternate. If remaining within the NAT Track system, maintain .80M until cleared to change speed by ATC.

5) Complete all follow-up/secondary actions for the failure listed in the QRH/Emergency Checklist.

NOTE: The essential action for the PF is to “FLY THE AIRCRAFT” and trim the rudder forces. The PNF must transmit a Distress Message as soon as practicable using the HF frequency in use and 121.5 MHz. All exterior lights should be turned “ON”.

NOTE: Diversion to the nearest en-route alternate should be commenced without delay.

NOTE: High-speed cruise, with MCT set, can be maintained to the alternate unless fuel considerations enforce flight at LRC. Use the PROGRESS page of the FMS with the destination changed to the appropriate alternate.

NOTE: If flying a NAT Track, MNPS contingency rules must be followed before setting course for the alternate.

Ops Manual 4.26.8
 



In the formula for calculating ETP, what does the 0 stand for in distance to ETP=TD x H divided by 0 = H?  
 
  All engine ground speed on at engine inoperative TAS.  
     At the planning stage for all ETOPS flights, the Critical Fuel Points must be determined by one of two methods: 
1) Automatic: An automated ETOPS computer flight plan will display the Critical Fuel [Equal Time] Points to selected alternates, and the fuel required to reach those alternates. This position must be checked for gross error.

2) Manual: If a computer flight plan is not available, a manual method of determining Critical Fuel [Equal Time] Point must be employed. [Gateway Equal Time Point].

Calculation of the ETP between two given points by formula may be carried out as follows:

Distance to ETP = TD x H divided by 0 + H

TD = Great Circle distance between the ERA’s in nm. Obtained from the Great Circle Distance Table.

H = Single Engine Ground speed Home at engine Inoperative TAS. 400 kts. + w/c.

0 = All Engine Ground speed On at engine inoperative TAS. 460 kts. + w/c.


Once the calculation has been completed plot the position on a straight line joining the ERA’s. 
Draw a perpendicular line from this point through the flight planned or actual track. This point is the actual ERA/CP. 
Draw a line joining each pair of suitable airports. Drop a perpendicular from each of these lines passing through the ETP on the original flight plan route [lines A-B, and C-D above]. Extend the perpendicular until it intersects the revised route. 
Ops Manual 4.26.13
 



 If in flight you have a shortfall in fuel required at your CP, you may still continue to destination.  
 

  True.  
 
     The crew must plot the Critical Fuel Point [CFP] between the two SUITABLE alternates and check that sufficient fuel will be on board at that point to satisfy the CRITICAL FUEL SCENARIO [CFS]. This can be determined from the computer flight plan by inspection. If the computer flight plan shows a shortfall in fuel available at the CFP, then extra fuel must be loaded to make good the deficiency. Tanker fuel, and fuel required for a destination beyond the ETOPS segment, is obviously available to offset this requirement. If the RTOW or RLW prevent this fuel being loaded, a different route must be chosen such that the CFP is nearer to an alternate airfield. The fuel required for the CFS and the position of the CFP should be annotated on the computer flight plan. Remember that a fuel allowance should be added to sector fuel to compensate for any additional CFP fuel carried. 
This fuel load is only a requirement at the planning stage. If in flight you have a shortfall in fuel required at your CP, you may still continue to destination.

Ops Manual 4.26.15
 



The NOPAC system's two northern routes is utilized for westbound traffic at all times.  
 
  False.  

     NOPAC and CEPAC are designated into 2 predominant flow patterns. Eastbound peak flow occurs from 0800Z to 2000Z. Westbound flow peaks from 2200Z to 0800Z. The most critical altitudes are described to be between FL 310 to FL 410 inclusive. Currently the NOPAC system is comprised of five air traffic service routes. The two northern routes are used for westbound traffic, except that R580 is used for eastbound between 1000Z and 1700Z. The southern three routes are used for eastbound traffic, except A590 may be used for westbound traffic between the hours of 2300Z and 0500Z above FL 350. Above FL 290 separation is as follows: 1,000 ft. vertical separation and 50 nm lateral separation. CEPAC airspace extends between the west cost of U.S. and Hawaii. The route structure is comprised of six routes inclusive of the airspace extending from FL 290 and FL 410. The same general operating rules used for the NOPAC routes applies to these routes. 
Ops Manual 4.22.1
 



What is controlling for visibility and ceiling values [if applicable] for terminal operations?  
  METAR.  
     FSG flight crews must obtain a current weather report before taking off, landing or beginning an instrument approach. The visibility and ceiling values [when applicable] in the body of the METAR’s are controlling for terminal operations. When a reported RVR or RVV for the runway is available it is the controlling visibility regardless of the prevailing visibility. 
Ops Manual 4.2.1
 



For surface weather observations to be considered 'current', a weather watch must have begun at one of the approved weather reporting stations at least:  
 
  60 minutes prior to departure and landing.  
 
     For a surface weather observation to be considered ‘current’, one of the following two conditions must be met: 
1) A specifically approved automated weather observation system must be operational while terminal area flight operations are conducted.

2) One of the observation stations listed below must be operational and a basic weather watch must begin in time to make observations available to pilots and Flight Followers at least 60 minutes prior to the arrival or departure.

FSS Flight Service Station. 
SAWRS Supplemental Aviation Weather Reporting Stations. 
LAWRS Limited Aviation Weather Reporting Stations [observations taken by airport traffic control towers; include data transmitted on ATIS frequencies]. 
ASOS Automated Surface Observation System. 
AWOS Automated Weather Observing System. 
Approved Weather Reporting Stations. 
Approved contract weather reporting stations [e.g. airline personnel authorized to take weather observations]. 
Ops Manual 4.2.1
 



What does SPECI report?  
 
 
  Quick changes in weather.  
 
     METAR AND TAF DECODOR: 
METAR- hourly

TAF-routine

TAF AMD-amended forecast

SPECI-special e.g., quick changes in weather

TESTM-non-commissioned ASOS report

Ops Manual 4.3
 



On the METAR report, what follows the 4-digit group to denote Coordinated Universal Time?  
 
 
  Z.  
     METAR 
On the issuance of time: ALL times in UTC “Z”, 2-digit date, 4-digit time

EX: 091955Z

Ops Manual 4.3

Question: 5

Add’l Info: WX1_5

22015G25KT- Wind: 3 digit true-north direction, nearest 10 degrees [or VaRiaBle]; next 2-3 digits for speed and unit, KT [KMH or MPS]; as needed, Gust and maximum speed; 00000KT for calm; For METAR, if direction varies 60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g. 180V260.

Ops Manual 4.3
 



On the METAR, what does the third grouping of "22015G25KT" represent?  
 
  Wind at 220 degrees, 15 kts. with gusts up to 25 kts.  

     22015G25KT- Wind: 3 digit true-north direction, nearest 10 degrees [or VaRiaBle]; next 2-3 digits for speed and unit, KT [KMH or MPS]; as needed, Gust and maximum speed; 00000KT for calm; For METAR, if direction varies 60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g. 180V260. 
Ops Manual 4.3
 



The fifth grouping message on the METAR is for:  
 
  Visibility.  
 
     The 5th grouping of the METAR is visibility. 
EX: 5SM – Prevailing visibility; in U.S., Statute Miles & fractions; above 6 miles in TAF Plus6SM. [Or, 4-digit minimum visibility in meters and as required, lowest value with direction].

Ops Manual 4.3
 



The METAR refers to the weather conditions. Descriptors for Low Drifting would be:  
 
  DR.  
     DESCRIPTORS: 
MI Shallow PR Partial BC Patches TS Thunderstorm BL Blowing SH Showers

DR Drifting FZ Freezing

Ops Manual 4.3.2
 



A descriptor on the METAR for smoke would be:  
 
  FU.  
 
 
     DESCRIPTORS FOR OBSCURATION: 
BR Mist (= 5/8SM) FG Fog (<5/8SM) FU Smoke SA Sand HZ Haze PY Spray

DU Widespread dust VA Volcanic Ash

Ops Manual 4.3.3
 



What does OVC010CB tell you on the METAR?  
 
 
  Overcast with cumulonimbus clouds and a cloud base of 1,000 ft.  
     The 8th grouping of the METAR describes: EX: 0VC010CB 
Cloud amount, height and type: Sky Clear 0/8, FEW 0/8-2/8, SCaTtered 3/8-4/8, BroKeN 5/8-7/8, OVerCast 8/8; 3-digit height in hundreds of ft.; Towering Cumulus or CumulonimBus in METAR; in TAF, only CB. Vertical Visibility for obscured sky and height “VV004”. More than 1 layer may be reported or forecast. In automated METAR reports only, CleaR for “clear below 12,000 ft.”.

Ops Manual 4.3
 



How are below zero temperatures displayed on the METAR?  
 
 
  Prefixed with a "M".  
     DESCRIPTOR FOR TEMPERATURE AND DEW POINT TEMPERATURE: 
Temperature: degrees Celsius; first 2 digits, temperature “/” last 2 digits, dew-point temperature; Minus for below zero, e.g. M06. EX: 18/16

Ops Manual 4.3
 



Most encounters with severe turbulence are experienced in connection with:  
 
 
  Thunderstorms.  
 
     TYPES OF TURBULENCE 
Convective Turbulence: Caused by thermal instability and is met in connection with the development and activity of thunderstorms. It can cause extreme air motion such as up and downdrafts of 6,000 ft/min. Most encounters with severe turbulence are experienced in connection with thunderstorm activity.

Orographic Turbulence: Under certain conditions of atmospheric stability and wind speed, the airflow creates a standing wave pattern to the lee of a mountain ridge and is known as “mountain waves,” which may cause severe turbulence. Typical telltale signs are lenticular cloud, rotor cloud and cloud with a “waterfall” appearance. The strongest turbulence may be found in the rotor cloud.

Clear Air Turbulence: Clear air turbulence [CAT] is normally caused by windshear between two different layers of air, which are adjacent to one another. CAT is normally found on the Polar side of jetstreams. The term CAT is commonly reserved to describe turbulence at higher altitudes not associated with cumulonimbus clouds. CAT is associated with severe turbulence and should be avoided. Large horizontal and vertical shears of wind speed in the transition zone between cold and warm air masses as well as the tropopause associated with jetstreams may cause severe turbulence. These turbulent areas are normally shallow, narrow and elongated patches that move with the wind. Clear air turbulence may sometimes be avoided by increasing/decreasing the cruising level if operational considerations so permit. Monitoring of PIREP’s may also assist in avoidance.

Ops Manual 4.4.3
 




In turbulence situations, the engine power should be set to maintain not above:  
 
  Maneuvering speed [Va].  
 
     Large speed fluctuations and difficulties in instrument reading are to be expected due to yawing and head-on gusts. Set engine power to maintain not above maneuvering speed [Va]. 
Maintain the recommended turbulence speed as the target speed. Set thrust as required and then do not change it unless required by large and/or persistent airspeed or altitude variations. The aircraft’s real airspeed will remain within reasonable limits as long as thrust is set properly, and a reasonably constant attitude is maintained.

If caught unaware by turbulence, do not slow down the aircraft hurriedly.

Ops Manual 4.4.6
 



Should control be partially lost due to severe turbulence resulting in a steep dive, which of these actions will be helpful in a successful recovery?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Do not retract speed brakes until recovery has been affected.  
 
  By reducing the elevator forces, the trim motors will be enabled to drive the stabilizer in the desire direction.  
 
  Use speed brakes to prevent a rapid speed build-up.  
     Should control be partially lost due to severe turbulence resulting in a steep dive, the following recommendations may be helpful for a successful recovery: 
Use speed brakes to prevent a rapid speed build-up. 
Do not retract speed brakes until recovery has been affected. 
Elevator forces can become very heavy as speed increases, thus being a safeguard against excessive g-loads. If stabilizer trim is used for recovery, use it with utmost caution so as to avoid heavy loads and a possible overtrim that could result in a renewed loss of control. 
If strong elevator forces are applied, the trim motors might become effective [stalled]. By reducing the elevator forces, the trim motors will be enabled to drive the stabilizer in the desired direction. 
Ops Manual 4.4.10
 



After crossing of a thunderstorm or turbulence area, which systems should be checked for damage?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Pitot and static heating.  
 
  Compasses.  
 
  Flight and engine instruments.  
     After crossing of a thunderstorm or turbulence area, the functions of the various aircraft systems should be checked as far as possible for: 
Flight and engine instruments 
Pitot and static heating 
Radio and navigation equipment 
Compasses 
Electrical system including circuit breakers 
Ops Manual 4.4.11
 



How much space should be between a light aircraft and a small or medium aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft utilizing an opposite direction runway for takeoff?  
 
  Five minutes.  
 
  Two minutes.  
 
  Three minutes.  
 
  One minute.  
     OPPOSITE DIRECTION RUNWAY OPERATIONS 
A minimum of two minutes shall be applied between a light, small or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft, and between a light aircraft and a small or medium aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is:

Utilizing an opposite direction runway for takeoff; or 
Landing on the same runway in the opposite direction. 
Landing on a parallel opposite direction runway established by less than 1,500 ft. 
NOTE: At airports where a grass strip is in use, in addition to the runway(s), the strip will be counted as a runway for wake vortex separation minima.

Ops Manual 4.5.4
 



Wind shear is best described as:  
 
  A change in wind direction and/or speed in a very short distance in the atmosphere.  
     Wind shear is best described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in a very short distance in the atmosphere. Under certain conditions, the atmosphere is capable of producing some dramatic shears very close to the ground; for example, wind direction changes of 180 and speed changes of 50 kts. or more within 200 ft. of the ground have been observed. It has been said that wind cannot affect an aircraft once it is flying except for drift and groundspeed. However, studies have shown that this is not true if the wind changes faster than the aircraft mass can be accelerated or decelerated. 
The winds around a thunderstorm are complex. Wind shear can be found on all sides of a thunderstorm cell and in the downdraft directly under the cell. The wind shift line or gust front associated with thunderstorms can precede the actual storm by 15 NM or more. Consequently, if a thunderstorm is near an airport of intended takeoff or landing, low-level wind shear hazards may exist.

Ops Manual 4.6.1
 	



How long do microbursts usually last?  
 
  15 minutes.  
 
     Microbursts are particularly hazardous because the flight crew initially experiences a headwind that increases aircraft performance [increase in airspeed and altitude]. This increase causes the flight crew to reduce power in order to maintain altitude and airspeed. The crew then experiences a downdraft upon reaching the center of the microbursts and then a tailwind. The downdraft and tailwind decrease aircraft performance [decrease in altitude and airspeed], which necessitates an increase in power. At this point, the aircraft may be unable to increase power fast enough to maintain altitude and airspeed. 
Microbursts seldom last longer than 15 minutes and are difficult to forecast. It is best that the flight crew is aware of the weather phenomena that lead to microbursts, so that they can readily identify it and take appropriate corrective action. The Low Level Wind Shear Alert System [LLWAS] is of particular help to the flight crew. These systems have been installed at several airports particularly susceptible to low-level wind shear and microbursts.

Ops Manual 4.2.6
 



Under which of the conditions should the pilot assume that severe wind shear is present?  
 
  Surface temperature of 80 degrees F or more and dew point spread of 40 degrees F or more.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Dew point spread of 40 degrees F or more and evidence of a gust front such as blowing dust.  
 
  Virga and surface temperature of 80 degrees F.  
     Assume that severe wind shear is present when the following conditions exist in combination: 
Extreme variations in wind velocity and direction in a relatively short time span. 
Evidence of a gust front such as blowing dust on the airport surface. 
Surface temperature in excess of 80 degrees F. 
Dew point spread of 40 degrees F or more. 
Virga [precipitation that falls from the bases of high altitude cumulus clouds but evaporates before reaching the ground]. 
Ops Manual 4.2.6
 



 A pilot caught in low-level wind shear and finds he is slower than the normal airspeed [even though he has gone to max power] could lower the nose and regain speed by trading away altitude. This is trading potential energy for:  
 
  Kinetic energy.  
     A pilot caught in low-level wind shear and finds he is slower than the normal airspeed [even though he has gone to max power] could lower the nose and regain speed by trading away altitude. [This is trading potential energy for Kinetic energy]. However, data shows that the penalty for doing this is severe; i.e., a large sink rate is built up and a great deal of altitude is lost for a relatively small increase in airspeed. 
Therefore, at low altitudes this alternative becomes undesirable. It is preferable to maintain the lower airspeed and rely on the airplane’s climb performance at these lower speeds than to push the nose over and risk ground contact. Flight Directors, which attempt to maintain a given speed, will automatically call for trading altitude for airspeed if the airplane is below the proper airspeed. Cases have been observed in simulators where following such a Flight Director will result in the pilot flying the airplane into the ground. It is the pilot NOT the Flight Director who should decide if trading altitude for speed is desirable.

Ops Manual 4.6.7
 



When wind shear is present and if the airplane is runway length limited or obstruction clearance limited, takeoff into even a light shear using V 2+25 should NOT be attempted.  
 
     
 
  True.  
 
     
     If the pilot judges the takeoff wind shear condition to be safe for departure, he should select the safest runway available considering length, wind direction, speed and location of storm areas. He should execute a maximum power takeoff using the minimum acceptable flap position. After rotation, airplane body angle should be maintained so as to result in acceleration to V2 + 25 kts. The speed and takeoff flaps should be held through 1,000 ft. AGL. If the airplane is runway length limited or obstruction clearance limited, takeoff into even a light shear using V 2+25 should NOT be attempted (too much of the thrust available for climb is used for acceleration). 
Ops Manual 4.6.11
 



If encountering severe windshear/downburst after takeoff, consider:  
 
  Avoid pitch down when airspeed decreases unexpectedly.  
 
  Do no change the configuration of the aircraft until a normal rate of climb has been established.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  DO NOT CHASE AIRSPEED, apply full power, increase pitch attitude smoothly and progressively until reaching stick-shaker actuation up to a maximum pitch attitude.  
     Thunderstorm cells in vicinity of the airport at a distance of 15 nm or less or frontal speeds exceeding 30 kts., or the presence of high base convective clouds with high surface temperatures and large dew point spread, or strong temperature inversions; are all indicators for the possible existence of windshear. 
If encountering severe windshear/downburst after takeoff, the following general guidelines should be considered in addition to the information contained in the type specific aircraft manuals:

DO NOT CHASE AIRSPEED, apply full power, increase pitch attitude smoothly and progressively until reaching stick-shaker actuation up to a maximum pitch attitude as suggested in the AFM, maintain the aircraft at or just above the stick shaker speed. 
Do no change the configuration of the aircraft until a normal rate of climb has been established. 
Avoid pitch down when airspeed decreases unexpectedly. 
Loss of lift is not only caused by loss of airspeed but also by decrease of angle of attack when encountering down flow windshear, which in turn reduces lift. This means that lowering of pitch attitude for gaining airspeed in a tailwind/down flow windshear, could result in a heavy sink rate. 
As a positive rate of climb returns, release the back pressure on the control column and gradually increase speed to normal. 
Ops Manual 4.6.11
 



Initial engine indications when encountering volcanic ash, will be:  
 
  A decrease of N1.  
     Initial engine indications when encountering volcanic ash, will be a decrease of N1, N2, and fuel flow, and an increase in EGT. Engine surges, torching form tailpipe and flameout may also occur. 
Do not rely on radar to detect and display volcanic ash and dust. Airborne weather radar systems on commercial airplanes are not capable of detecting very small ash and dust particles. Volcanic ash and dust may not be visible at night or in Instrument Meteorological Conditions [IMC].

To the flight crew volcanic ash may appear as smoke or dust in the cockpit or an acrid odor similar to electrical smoke. At night heavy static discharges [St. Elmo’s Fire] around the windshields may be visible. The landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows.

Fly on the upwind side of the ash cloud. If an ash cloud is inadvertently entered, exit immediately via the shortest route at the lowest practicable thrust setting.

Ops Manual 4.7.1
 



Which of the following is NOT correct in reference to ground operations in volcanic ash or dust?  
 
  Windshield wipers can be used to remove ash from the windshield.  

     During ground operation in volcanic ash or dust conditions, complete the following actions: 
Do not use the windshield wipers for ash or dust removal. Hose off ash or dust deposits with water, and wipe off residue with a clean cloth. 
Verify that the pitot and static port are ash or dust free. 
Inspect and clear all ventilation inlets and scoops of ash or dust accumulation. 
Check engine inlets for acoustic panel just coating. 
Use of the APU should be limited to engine start. 
Limit the use of reverse thrust to prevent volcanic ash from being ingested into the engines. Visibility may also be impaired. Discontinue use of bleed air during reverser operation. 
Caution should be used while taxiing. 
A light layer of ash or dust on the taxiway or runway may reduce tire adhesion. 
If taxiways are wet, the ash or dust covered surfaces should be treated the same as ice covered surfaces. 
Brake wear will be increased. 
Maintain greater than normal separation from other aircraft. Avoid use of air conditioning on the ground. If air conditioning on the ground is necessary, operate at full cold setting if dust is visible. 
If at all possible delay takeoff in an area of an ash cloud. 
Prior to takeoff allow the ash and dust to settle. A rolling takeoff should be used. Avoid setting high thrust at low speed when possible. Do not takeoff with the packs on. 
Reporting Form: As soon as practical after discovering volcanic activity, the PIC should complete an event log. 
Ops Manual 4.7.3
 




 Pilots and Flight Followers will consider holding or other action that is appropriate when the thunderstorm is within what distance of the airport?  
 
 
  5 NM.  

     When more than scattered thunderstorms are forecast or known to exist along the route of flight: 
The flight will be planned and released to circumnavigate the area of thunderstorms or the aircraft gross weight will be limited as to allow the aircraft to fly at an altitude higher than the thunderstorms that are encountered enroute. 
If that is not practical and the radar is inoperative, the flight must be planned and operated under visual meteorological conditions [VMC]. This does not require a VFR flight plan. The flight must be filed and flown under Instrument Flight Rules [IFR] in VMC conditions. 
If thunderstorms are active within 5 NM of the airport, pilots and Flight Followers will consider holding or other action as appropriate. 
When a line of solid thunderstorms is known or forecast to exist across the route such as squall lines or frontal activity, flights will not be released until the line has passed, dissipated, or can be circumnavigated. 
Although flight through areas of thunderstorm activity should be avoided wherever possible, provided that the recommended techniques are employed, such flight may be carried out where no alternative course of action is possible. 
Ops Manual 4.9.1
 



If storm clouds have to be overflown, how much vertical separation must be maintained from the cloud tops?  
 
  5,000 ft.  
 
     If storm clouds have to be overflown, always maintain at least 5,000 ft. vertical separation from cloud tops. It is difficult to estimate this separation from cloud tops. It is difficult to estimate this separation but ATC or Met information on the altitude of the tops may be available for guidance. 
If the airplane is not equipped with radar or it is inoperative, avoid by 10 miles any storm that by visual inspection is tall, growing rapidly or has an anvil top. Intermittently monitor long ranges on radar to avoid getting into situations where no alternative remains but the penetration of hazardous areas.

Avoid flying under a cumulonimbus overhang. If such flight cannot be avoided, tilt antenna full up occasionally to determine, if possible, whether precipitation (which may be hail) exists in or is falling from the overhand.

WARNING: FSG flights may not be released through or continue to operate in areas of severe turbulence.

Ops Manual 4.10.2
 



When approaching a thunderstorm area, which of these operations should NOT be accomplished?  
 
  Selectly an altitude that will allow for overflying the thunderstorm.  
     Approaching the thunderstorms area: 
1) Ensure that crew members’ and passengers’ safety belts or harnesses are firmly fastened and any loose articles are secured.

2) One pilot should control the airplane and the other monitor the flight instruments and electrical supplies continuously.

3) Select an altitude for penetration while ensuring adequate terrain clearance.

4) Set the power to give the recommended speed for flight in turbulence, adjust the trim and note its position so that any excessive changes due to autopilot or mach trim can be quickly assessed.

5) Ensure that the pilot heaters are switched on.

6) Check the operation of all anti-icing and de-icing equipment and operate all these systems in accordance with manufacturer’s or operator’s instructions.

7) Disregard any radio navigation indications subject to interference from static, e.g. ADF.

8) Turn the cockpit lighting fully on and lower the crew seats and sun visors to minimize the blinding effect of lightning flashes.

9) Follow the manufacturer’s or operator’s recommendations on the use of the flight director, autopilot and manometric locks. If these are not stated, height, mach, rate of climb or descent and airspeed locks should be disengaged but the yaw damper(s), if fitted, should be operative.

10) Continue monitoring the weather radar in order to select the safest track for penetration.

11) In turbine powered airplane switch on the continuous ignition system considering any system limitations that may exist.

12) Avoid flying in close proximity to a thunderstorm whenever possible.

Ops Manual 4.10.3
 



When operating within a thunderstorm area:  
 
  Attempt to maintain the original heading.  
     Within the storm area: 
1) Maintain control of the airplane while concentrating on maintaining a constant pitch attitude approach to climb, cruise or descent, by reference to the attitude indicators; avoid harsh or excessive control movements. Do not be misled by conflicting indications on other instruments. Do not allow large attitude excursions in the rolling plane to persist.

2) Attempt to maintain the original heading.

3) Do not correct for altitude gained or lost through up and down drafts unless absolutely necessary.

4) Maintain the trim settings and avoid changing the power setting except when necessary to restore margins from stall warning or high speed buffet.

5) If trim variations due to the autopilot [auto-trim] are large, the autopilot should be disengaged. Movement of the mach trim, where it occurs, is however necessary and desirable. Check the yaw-damper remains engaged.

6) If negative “G” is experienced, temporary warnings [i.e., low oil pressure] may occur. These should be ignored.

7) On no account climb in an attempt to get over the top of the storm.

Ops Manual 4.10.3
 



If landing on a contaminated runway in unavoidable, touchdown should be made firmly at the beginning of the touchdown zone and:  
 
  Reverse thrust used before applying wheel brakes.  
 
  Nosewheel lowerd as early as possible.  
 
  Spoilers used before applying wheel brakes.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     RAIN AND OTHER PRECIPITATIONS 
On the runway, directional control may be adversely affected by surface contamination; takeoff distance may be increased due to slower acceleration; accelerate-stop distance may be increased for the same reason, and because of poor braking action and hydroplaning, landing distance will be increased for similar reasons. If landing on a contaminated runway is unavoidable, any crosswind component should be well below the normal dry runway figure. Touchdown should be made firmly and at the beginning of the touchdown zone, the nose wheel lowered as early as possible, and any retarding devices such as spoilers, lift dump or reverse thrust used before beginning to apply wheel brakes, in order to give the wheels time to spin up. If an anti-skid braking system is fitted and serviceable, they should be used immediately and to the maximum degree.

Ops Manual 4.12.1
 



How long may warm front shear exist below 5,000 feet?  
 
  6 hours.  
     The winds can be significantly different in the two air masses, which meet to form a front. While the direction of the winds above and below a front can be accurately determined, existing procedures do not provide precise, current measurements of the height of the front above the airport. The following is a method for determining the approximate height of the wind shear associated with a front. 
Wind shear occurs with a cold front just after the front passes the airport and for a short period thereafter. If the front is moving 30 knots or more, the frontal surface will usually be 5,000 ft. above the airport about 3 hrs. after the front passage.

With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport. Warm front shear may exist below 5,000 ft. for approximately six hours. The problem ceases to exist after the front passes the airport. Data compiled on wind shear indicates that the amount of shear in warm fronts is much greater than that found in cold fronts.

Ops Manual 4.16.1
 



A Pretakeoff Contamination Inspection is completed within:  
 
  5 minutes prior to beginning takeoff.  
 
     The PIC has the responsibility to ensure that a pre-takeoff contamination check is conducted in accordance with Ops Specs within 5 minutes prior to beginning the takeoff any time conditions are such that frost, snow, or ice may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft. When the PIC of a flight becomes aware of conditions [including airport and runway conditions] that are hazardous to safe operations he shall restrict or suspend operations until those conditions are corrected. 
Ops Manual 2.1.1
 



application of certain types of fluid provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow or slush on clean surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time is:  
 
  Anti-Icing.  
 
     ANTI-ICING: A precautionary procedure by which the application of certain types of anti-icing fluids provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow or slush on clean surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time. 
Ops Manual 4.2
 



A procedure by which frost, ice, or snow is removed from the aircraft in order to provide clean surfaces is:  
 
 
  Deicing.  
     DEICING: A procedure by which frost, ice or snow is removed from the aircraft in order to provide clean surfaces. The procedure can be accomplished by the use of fluids or mechanical means. 
Ops Manual 4.2
 



Which type of ice forms when, after initial impact, the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows out over the aircraft surface gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice?  
 
 
  Clear ice.  
     CLEAR ICE: Forms when, after initial impact, the remaining liquid portion fo the drop flows out over the aircraft surface gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of ice. 
Ops Manual 4.2
 



Which of the following are examples of freezing precipitation?  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Freezing rain which adheres to the aircraft surface.  
 
  Hail which adheres to the aircraft surface.  
 
  Snow which adheres to the aircraft surface.  
     FREEZING PRECIPITATION: Snow, sleet, freezing rain, drizzle or hail which adheres to the aircraft surface.

Ops Manual 4.2 
 



Which of the following fluids are considered to be Newtonian Fluids?  
 
  Type I.  
     NEWTONIAN FLUIDS: 
Fluids whose viscosities are shear independent and time independent. The shear rate of a Newtonian fluid is directly proportional to the shear stress. The fluid will begin to move immediately upon application of a stress; it has no yield stress which must be achieved before flow begins. Type I fluids are considered Newtonian type fluids.

Ops Manual 4.2
 



Which type of ice forms when drops are small, and the liquid portion remaining after initial impact freezes rapidly before the drop has time to spread over the aircraft surface?  
 
  Rime ice.  
     RIME ICE: 
Forms when drops are small, such as those in stratified clouds or light drizzle. The liquid portion remaining after initial impact freezes rapidly before the drop has time to spread over the aircraft surface. The small frozen droplets trap air between them giving the ice a white appearance. Rime ice is lighter in weight than clear ice, it’s irregular shape and rough surface, make it very effective for reducing lift and increasing drag. Rime ice is brittle and more easily removed than clear ice.

Ops Manual 4.2
 



Unthickened fluids that are normally applied as a mixture of glycol and water, and are mainly used to provide protection against refreezing when longer delays occur are:  
 
 
  Type I Fluids.  
 
     TYPE I FLUID: 
Unthickened fluids that are normally applied as a mixture of glycol and water. These fluids mainly provide protection against refreezing when longer delays occur.

Ops Manual 4.2
 



Fluid which can only be used on aircraft with takeoff speeds (V1/Vr) of 85 kts of greater, and which has good dry out and good aerodynamic elimination, is:  
 
  Type II Fluid.  
 
     TYPE II FLUID: 
Fluid used extensively in Canada and Europe, and less commonly in the U.S. Type II fluid is less difficult to apply and provides longer holdover times than Type I fluid. The drawback of Type II fluid is that it has a gel consistency that may reduce a runway’s coefficient of friction, thereby reducing an airplane’s braking capability. Type II fluids can only be used on aircraft with takeoff speeds (V1/Vr) of 85 KTS or greater.

Ops Manual 4.2
 



Which type of fluids have significantly better holdover times than Type I or II fluids, but sometimes form a thick or high strength gel during "dry-out", and a slippery film when re-hydrated?  
 
  Type IV Fluids.  
 
     TYPE IV FLUID: 
Concentrated Type IV deicing/anti-icing fluids have significantly better holdover time performance when compared to Type II and Type I fluids. This is attributable, in part, to the addition of thickeners and/or other additives which facilitate a thicker application of the fluid. However, during tests with some Type IV fluids, residual fluids were observed to form a thick or high strength gel during "dry-out" and when rehydrated formed a slippery film. Also, some new Type IV fluids have exhibited poor aerodynamic (flow-off) qualities at colder temperatures.

Ops Manual 4.2
 




Which type of ice forms when drops vary in size or when liquid drops are intermingled with snow or ice particles?  

  Mixed Ice.  
 
     MIXED CLEAR AND RIME ICING: 
Mixed ice forms when drops vary in size or when liquid drops are intermingled with snow or ice particles. It can form rapidly. Rime ice particles become imbedded in clear ice, building a very rough accumulation that sometimes forms in a mushroom shape on leading edges.

Ops Manual 4.2
 




What are the requirements for aircraft icing to form?  
 
 
  Temperature of the aircraft surface 0 deg C or colder and visible moisture.  
 
     There are only 2 requirements for ice formation on an aircraft: 
1) Airframe temperature of 0 degrees C. or less and

2) Visible moisture

Water droplets below 0 degrees C. are called “super cooled” water droplets, and have been found as low as -19 degrees C. Super cooled water droplets can lead to rapid accretion of ice. Super cooled water is in an unstable state; when an aircraft strikes a super cooled drop, part of the drop freezes instantaneously. The latent heat of fusion released by the freezing portion raises the temperature of the remaining portion to the melting point. Aerodynamic effects may cause the remaining portion to freeze. The way in which the remaining portion freezes determines the type of icing. The types of structural icing are clear, rime, and a mixture of the two. Each type has its identifying features. The heaviest icing will occur between 0 degrees and -10 degrees C.

Ops Manual 4.3.1
 



Which type of ice forms near the surface primarily in clear, stable air with light winds?  
 
 
  Frost.  
 
     Frost is a hazard to flying long recognized in the aviation community. Experienced pilots have learned to remove all frost from airfoils prior to takeoff. Frost forms near the surface primarily in clear, stable air with light winds - conditions which in all other respects make weather ideal for flying. Because of this, the real hazard is often minimized. Thin metal airfoils are especially vulnerable surfaces on which frost will form. 
Ops Manual 4.3.4
 



Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing.  
 
 
  False.  
     Frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, but the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a mild coat of hard frost can cause up to a 30 percent increase in stall speed. A small amount of frost on airfoils may even prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speeds. Also possible is that once airborne, an aircraft could have insufficient margin of airspeed above stall so that moderate gusts or turning flight could produce incipient to complete stalling. 
Ops Manual 4.3.4
 



Ice will always form in clouds with subfreezing temperatures:  
 
  False.  
     
 
    Basically, all clouds with subfreezing temperatures have icing potential. However, drop size, distribution, and aerodynamic effects of the aircraft influence ice formation. Ice may not form even though the potential exists. 
Ops Manual 4.3.5
 



Clear icing in freezing rain may occur:  
 
  With either a warm front or a cold front.  
     FRONTS: 
A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing is in freezing rain below a frontal surface. Rain forms above the frontal surface at temperatures warmer than freezing. Subsequently, it falls through air at temperatures below freezing and becomes supercooled. The supercooled drops freeze on impact with an aircraft surface. It may occur with either a warm front or a cold front. The icing can be critical because of the large amount of supercooled water. Icing can also become serious in cumulonimbus clouds along a surface cold front, along a squall line, or embedded in the cloud shield of a warm front.

Ops Manual 4.4.2
 




In a mountainous region, the most dangerous icing takes place:  
 
  Above the crest and to the windward side of the ridges.  
 
     Each mountainous region has preferred areas of icing depending upon orientation of mountain ranges to the wind flow. The most dangerous icing takes place above the crest and to the windward side of the ridges. This zone usually extends about 5,000 feet above the tops of the mountains; but when clouds are cumuliform, the zone may extend much higher. 
Ops Manual 4.4.3
 



If a B-747 reports braking action as "fair", can a Learjet landing behind it expect the same braking action?  
 
 
  Not necessarily, it may experience different action due to different weight, speed, and tire area.  
 
     Braking Reports can be misleading. A B-747 has better braking friction than a B-727, mainly because of the extra tires and weight. Pilot reports also depend upon the speed at which the brakes were applied. An aircraft at 100 knots may give a "poor to nil" report while an aircraft at 60 kts may report "fair", and at 30 knots "good", all on the same contaminated surface. Therefore it is important to question the tower about braking reports: What kind of aircraft made the report? Where did it turn off the runway? Some pilots monitor the tower frequency many miles out from the airport in order to listen to the actual pilot report rather than rely on second hand information. 
Ops Manual 4.7.1
 



"MU" is:  
 
  A measurement of the slipperiness of the runway surface, ranging from 0 to 100 (0 = the most slippery).  
 
     Most U.S. airports located in the snow belt have runway friction measuring devices. When ATC furnishes the friction values measured by these devices, they are denoted as the Greek letter MU (pronounced myew), and provide a measure of slipperiness of the runway surface. MU values range from 0 to 100, where 0 is the lowest friction value and 100 is the highest. Only MU values below 40 are normally reported by ATC during winter operations because a MU value of 40 is where braking performance begins to deteriorate and directional control becomes difficult. There is no recognized or appropriate engineering correlation between MU values and the subjective descriptors of "good, fair, poor, nil". 
Ops Manual 4.7.1
 



No airplane will takeoff when any of the following have an adhering coating of ice, snow or frost:  
 
  Stabilizers.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  Wings.  
 
  Pitot and stall system probes.  
     FSG utilizes the “clean aircraft concept” for the operation of all aircraft. This concept provides that the aircraft will be completely clear of snow, frost, or ice before takeoff. 
It is the responsibility of the PIC to ensure the following procedures are strictly adhered to:

1) Check and remove any tape, covers, and/or plugs previously installed on pitot-static probes, static ports, etc.

2) No airplane will takeoff when any of the following have an adhering coating of ice, snow or frost:

A) Windshield/Wings

B) Stabilizers

C) Control surfaces

D) Pitot and stall system probes Power plant installation

a) Check any other items required by the AFM or deemed necessary by the flight crew.

b) No airplane will takeoff with ice, snow or frost adhering to any part of the aircraft structure which, in the opinion of the PIC, might adversely affect airplane performance.

Ops Manual 4.9.3
 



During taxi-out in snow or slush conditions, the flaps should be in what position?  
 
 
  Retracted until completing the taxi to the takeoff runway.  
 
     TAXI AND RAMP OPERATIONS 
Be aware that if you taxi through jet or prop blast in light blowing snow, enough snow can be blown onto the fuselage to melt and then refreeze in a thin film over static ports.

Flap operation on the ground should be altered in snow or slush conditions. During taxi-out, the flaps should be left retracted until completing the taxi to the takeoff runway if the appropriate checklists allow. On taxi-in after landing where there is snow, ice, or slush on the runway, the PIC may elect to leave the flaps extended to the approach position to prevent damage upon retraction. Upon arrival at the gate, closely inspect the flap area and deice as necessary to remove any slush or snow that may have accumulated, then retract the flaps to prevent contamination from forming while the aircraft is parked on the ramp.

Ops Manual 4.9.4
 



If, after takeoff in winter weather conditions, control flutter occurs:  
 
  First attempt to decrease airspeed, even though that speed may be close to the stall.  
 
     AFTER TAKEOFF 
One eighth of an inch of ice adhering to ailerons, elevator, or rudder can cause control flutter. Small amounts of ice inside the control surfaces can cause a weight imbalance and also cause flutter. Control flutter is a violent instability, and can destroy an aircraft as speed is increased or decreased. If flutter should occur, first attempt to decrease airspeed even though that speed may be close to a stall. This is a drastic decision, but it is much more desirable than the consequences of flutter. The best way to avoid flutter is to ensure that all surfaces are completely free of any contamination.

Ops Manual 4.10.4
 



If the pilot suspects that slush or wet snow has worked it's way up into the wheel wells during taxi and takeoff, he or she should:  
 
  Recycle the gear so that the airstream can blow away as much of the substance as possible.  
 
     Slush or wet snow can work it’s way up into the wheel wells during taxi and takeoff. It can then refreeze enroute and prevent the undercarriage from extending. If this is suspected during the takeoff, recycle the gear so that the airstream can blow away as much of the substance as possible prior to freezing. 
Ops Manual 4.10.4
 



If, during winter conditions, a slight buffet is felt when the flaps are retracted during the climb:  
 
  Immediately return the flaps to their prior position.  
 
     If a slight buffet is felt when the flaps are retracted during the climb, immediately return the flaps to their prior position. There may be ice on the wings causing a disturbance of airflow, and the change in flap position changes the airflow to a nearly stalled condition. Gain some more altitude, increase airspeed, and then retract the flaps. Remember that until the ice that caused the airflow disturbance melts away, the same problem will occur. 
Ops Manual 4.10.4
 



When caught in a heavy icing area, a noticeable improvement will usually occur with a change of altitude of as little as:  
 
  1,000 ft.  
     In clouds or visible moisture, any temperature between +10 degrees C and -40 degrees C can produce some form of icing. The greatest occurrence is between +5 degrees C and -10 degrees C with the highest risk being just below the freezing point. 
While icing can also occur at any altitude, severe icing areas are usually about 200 hundred ft. thick. Therefore, an altitude change of 1,000 ft. will usually show noticeable improvement. Heavy icing is sometimes associated with turbulence at the bases and tops of cumulus clouds. Be aware of the possibility that significant icing may occur in an area of intermittent or no precipitation, just beyond the boundaries of a widespread area of steady precipitation, and much less icing within the precipitation area itself.

Ops Manual 4.11
 



If you the pilot is experiencing more than an inch or so of St. Elmo's Fire, what should he do?  
 
  Reduce airspeed 20 knots.  
     SNOW STATIC 
Heavy snow static can be a nuisance and even hazardous. Radio static and St. Elmo’s Fire are common in heavy snow and cold cumulus clouds. A static discharge is capable of burning holes in the airframe, exploding fuel tanks, and a host of other hazardous events. An electrical charge can build-up and suddenly discharge faster than the aircraft’s static wicks can handle.

The best prevention is to avoid cumulus clouds when the OAT is between -5 degrees C and 5 degrees C. An inch or so of St. Elmo’s Fire is acceptable, but if there is a sudden build up, reduce airspeed by at least 20 knots immediately and then call ATC for an altitude change. The voltage should drop, but to be safe, place one earphone off or forward of the ear to prevent deafness and turn up the white cockpit lights to prevent blindness. If a large discharge does occur, land as soon as possible for a complete maintenance inspection.

Ops Manual 4.11.7
 
  
 


What is the recommended technique for landing on a wet runway?  
 
 
  Use the greatest flap setting allowed, use the slowest approach speed allowed, touchdown firmly.  
     RECOMMENDED TECHNIQUE FOR WET RUNWAY LANDINGS 
Utilize the greatest flap setting allowed to permit the minimum approach speed to be used. Do not attempt to hold the aircraft off to make a smooth landing. Make a firm touchdown. Apply maximum reverse thrust as soon as possible after touchdown. When using aircraft braking, utilize the anti-skid system properly by applying maximum braking and holding steady brake pedal pressure.

In addition to the problem of hydroplaning, splashing water or slush can cause damage to flaps or other parts of the airframe. Water or slush can also freeze to actuating mechanisms, causing them to cease functioning.

Ops Manual 4.12.4
 



What is the proper method for applying reverse thrust? On touchdown:  
 
  Apply reverse thrust, ensuring that all systems have engaged, then gently increase reverse thrust.  
 
     Reverse thrust is most effective at higher speeds (just the opposite of the brakes). At the higher speeds, the steering control of the aircraft will be primarily that of the flight controls. Therefore, on touchdown, reverse thrust should be applied, ensuring that all systems have engaged. Then gently increase reverse thrust while maintaining directional control. During this transition period, it is very important that the pilot ensures that adequate control is available. Maximum reverse thrust can be applied even under crosswind conditions as long as the flight controls can keep the aircraft tracking down the runway centerline. As the flight controls lose their effectiveness, differential reverse thrust may be used, or reverse thrust may be reduced in order to maintain directional control. 
CAUTION: DEBRIS MAY BE INGESTED WHILE IN REVERSE THRUST ON CONTAMINATED SURFACES.

Ops Manual 4.12.7
 




The third segment for icing information of the METAR/SPECI remarks will present:  
 
  Ice accretion during the previous 6 hours.  
     The icing information will appear in the remarks section of the METAR/SPECI in three segments: 
1) The first segment will provide the ice accretion amount during the preceding hour.

2) The second segment is the 3-hour ice accretion report, which presents the amount of ice accretion during the last 3 hours.

3) The third segment is the 6-hour ice accretion report, which presents the ice accretion amount during the last 6 hours.

All ice accretion amounts will be reported to the nearest one-hundredth of an inch [0.01 in.]. An example of a 1, 3, and 6-hour ice accretion remark would be: “I1010 I3015 I6022.” This translates to 0.10 inches of ice in the last hour, 0.15 inches of ice in the last 3 hours, and 0.22 inches of ice in the last 6 hours.

Ops Manual 4.13.1
 



Ice accretion remarks reported by ASOS should NOT be used as the basis for airplane de-icing decisions.  
 
     
 
  True.  
 
     
     However, ice accretion information is from a single sensor at a single location and cannot be considered representative of the overall icing potential for the airport surface as a whole. Because icing can be highly localized, icing occurring at the ASOS sensor may not be occurring at the same rate or at all on the airport ramp. Conversely, a report of no icing is not a guarantee that icing is not occurring on the ramp. The localized variability in icing is due to such factors as differences in ground temperatures, winds, sheltering, and precipitation rates over short distances at airports. Therefore, aviation users must recognize that ice accretion reports are useful for general awareness but should not be used as the basis for tactical decision-making. Ice accretion remarks reported by ASOS should NOT be used as the basis for airplane de-icing decisions. 
Ops Manual 4.13.1
 



With turboprop operations in severe icing conditions the autopilot should be:  
 
  Disconnected at least every 5 minutes during flight.  
 
     TURBOPROP OPERATIONS IN ICING CONDITIONS 
When other in-flight icing procedures are not expressed in the manual used by the pilot, the following general procedures are recommended by the FAA:

Intervals. If icing conditions are severe, the autopilot should be disconnected at least once every 5 minutes during flight to ensure normal airplane trim and handling qualities are maintained. 
Speed. An additional margin of speed should be added if so specified in the AFM, or as specified by company policy. If no specific guidance is provided, the extra speed margin should be at least 50-60% above stall speed in clean configuration. 
Autopilot trims and control displacement must be periodically checked by the PIC when operating in icing conditions. When an autopilot is connected, the pilot flying should stay in touch with trim and control changes by periodically disconnecting the autopilot. The autopilot may be reconnected if no anomalies are found. 
Power settings and auto throttle behavior. Whether an auto throttle system is engaged or not, engine power settings are very revealing and should be closely monitored during flight in icing conditions. The flight crew should closely monitor these settings to ensure that adequate speed margins are maintained, that engine operation and parameters are normal, and that excessive thrust is not required to accomplish desired airplane performance. 
Ops Manual 4.14.1
 



When the aircraft is being de-iced, which of the following is true?  
 
  For areas that cannot be directly sprayed, a glycol mixture can be applied with a cloth.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  A hard stream of fluid should never be sprayed directly onto aircraft windows, this may cause cracking.  
 
  Fluid should not be sprayed directly on vortex generators.  
     DEICING SUGGESTIONS: 
Do not spray directly into an engine intake. 
Do not spray directly into the pitot tubes, static ports, or directly on vortex generators. 
Never spray directly onto window surfaces with a hard stream of fluid as this can cause cracking. Spraying directly above the window and letting the fluid mixture flow down the window can accomplish removal of snow and ice. 
For areas that are unable to be directly sprayed, one may deice these areas by applying the glycol mixture to a cloth and wipe the area in question. 
Ice can build up on aircraft surfaces during flight through dense clouds or precipitation. When ground OAT at the destination is low, it is possible for flaps and other moveable surfaces to be retracted and accumulations of ice to remain undetected between stationary and moveable surfaces. It is therefore important that these areas are checked prior to departure and any frozen deposits removed. 
The flight control check shall be performed after deicing. 
During periods of precipitation, the deicing process [two units] is normally started at the nose of the aircraft on each side. Moving towards the rear of the aircraft, position the deicer units between the front of both wings and the fuselage. Spray the leading edge of the wings, props, and the fuselage. Attention should be given to the main gear and the underside of the wing. 
Ops Manual 4.15.1
 



If, during taxi, snow or slush is observed splashing onto critical areas of the aircraft:  
 
 
  Do not takeoff.  
 
     PRACTICES FOR PILOTS TO ENSURE A CLEAN AIRCRAFT 
Be knowledgeable of the adverse effects of surface roughness on aircraft performance and flight characteristics. 
Be knowledgeable of ground deicing and anti-icing practices and procedures being used on your aircraft, whether this service is being performed by FSG, a service contractor, a fixed-based operator, or others. 
Do not allow deicing and anti-icing until you are familiar with the ground deicing practices and quality control procedures of the service organization. 
Be knowledgeable of critical areas of your aircraft and ensure that these areas are properly deiced and anti-iced. 
Ensure that proper precautions are taken during the deicing process to avoid damage to aircraft components and surfaces. 
Ensure that a thorough post deicing inspection is performed prior to takeoff even though this may also be the responsibility of other personnel. 
Be knowledgeable of the function, capabilities, limitations, and operations of the installed aircraft ice protection systems. 
Perform additional preflight during checks related to deicing or anti-icing as necessary or as required. 
Do not takeoff if snow or slush is observed splashing onto critical areas of the aircraft, such as wing leading edges, during taxi. 
Be aware that fluid used for ground deicing/anti-icing is not intended for and does not provide any protection from contamination during flight. 
Ops Manual 4.16.1
 



Discrepancies are categorized in how many different categories?  
 
 
  Four.  
 
     All discrepancies will be categorized as one of four categories: 
1) Unairworthy Item

2) Minimum Equipment List [MEL] Item

3) Carry-Over Item

4) Airworthy/Information Item

Ops Manual 4.1.2
 



A Carry-Over item discrepancy category allows operation with dents or cracks in the aircraft as long as they are within the limits set by the manufacturer.  
 
     
 
  True.  
 
     
     UNAIRWORTHY ITEM: This category always requires maintenance corrective action before further flight. 
MEL ITEM: This category permits aircraft continued use with these items inoperative or removed. The item may be deferred in accordance with Minimum Equipment List by the PIC or authorized maintenance personnel.

CARRY-OVER ITEM: This category covers items not listed in the Minimum Equipment List and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

1) Flight crew/passenger comfort items.

2) Cosmetic items, such as cleaning, painting and interior trim.

3) Dents and cracks that are within limits set forth in the manufacturer’s structural repair manual.

4) Interim repairs approved by the inspection department.

AIRWORTHY OR INFORMATIONAL ITEM: An item will fall into this category when:

1) The item is written for informational purposes and the information does not indicate an unairworthy condition exists [i.e., a switch that is fully functional but is starting to feel sloppy].

2) The item has been checked and determined to be within limits established by the Maintenance Manual or other approved manuals or procedures [i.e., the pressure of a hydraulic system has been checked to be low or high but within the Aircraft Maintenance Manual limits].

3) If an item is an informational item, “Information Only” or “For Information Only” etc. will be written in the corrective action column of the Aircraft Maintenance Log and no further action is necessary.

4) If the item is determined to be airworthy, [i.e., no corrective action necessary] a description of the maintenance procedure used to determine the item is airworthy will be entered in the corrective action column of the Aircraft Maintenance Log.

Ops Manual 4.1.2
 



Each page of the Aircraft Maintenance Log will include:  
 
  UTC date the page is initialized.  
 
  Aircraft Registration Number.  
 
  PIC name.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     All mechanical irregularities noted by the flight crew will be recorded on the Aircraft Maintenance Log or an equivalent Maintenance Log as follows: 
1) Enter the aircraft registration number and aircraft type.

2) Enter the date [UTC] that the AML page is initialized.

3) Enter the PIC and SIC names.

4) Enter the aircraft hours and landings and engine hours and cycles determined from the aircraft flight log.

5) Enter the discrepancy number – discrepancies will be numbered sequentially. Discrepancy numbers will start at #1 for each flight or series of flights.

6) Enter the aircraft total time that the discrepancy is being written up.

7) The PIC will enter or have entered a description of the mechanical irregularity. The description will be as clear and descriptive as possible. Use as much space as necessary to give a complete description of the discrepancy. If more space is needed put an “X” through the next sequential aircraft flight log or logs and write “For maintenance purposes only” then use the next Aircraft Maintenance Log page or pages for additional space. Items 1 through 3 will be completed on each additional Aircraft Maintenance Log page used. Once the discrepancy is entered in the Aircraft Maintenance Log, the PIC will contact the Maintenance Dept. through Operations for aircraft operated under FAR 135.

Ops Manual 4.2.1
 



 How will FSG personnel sign off after clearing a discrepancy?  
 
  By using the Air Carrier number.  
 
     PROCEDURES FOR CLEARING DISCREPANCIES 
Only authorized personnel are authorized to correct a discrepancy and therefore complete the corrective action portion of the Aircraft Maintenance Log.

The corrective action portion will be completed as follows:

8) Enter the discrepancy number that corresponds to the discrepancy being cleared.

9) Enter the aircraft total time the discrepancy is being cleared.

10) Enter a description of the work performed to clear the discrepancy. Reference to a work order or other job record may be used for a more detailed description of the work performed.

11) The authorized mechanic/repairman will sign, enter a Repair Station number, Air Carrier number of A&P number and enter the date the work was completed.

NOTE: FSG personnel will use the Air Carrier number for all sign-offs of aircraft listed in Ops Specs D-085, contained in the Ops Manual. Non-Flight Services Group personnel will use their company’s Repair Station number if applicable, or their valid A & P number. Any FSG personnel authorizing maintenance to be performed on aircraft listed in D-085 will ensure that the person performing such maintenance is properly trained, certificated, and possesses the tools and current manuals required to perform such maintenance. Any person performing maintenance on an FSG aircraft in the U.S. MUST be covered under a random drug and alcohol testing program and have a letter to prove it.

Ops Manual 4.2.2
 



 If repairs are required away from the FSG maintenance base, who will assure that the personnel making the repairs are throughly familiar with FSG General Operations and the Maintenance Manual?  
 
 
  Maintenance Manager or Coordinator.  
 
     If the aircraft is away from a FSG maintenance base, all repairs must be coordinated through the maintenance department. This may be done by telephone directly between the maintenance department and the maintenance personnel performing the work, or through the PIC. The PIC will contact the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator and debrief on the current discrepancy. The Maintenance Manager or Coordinator will then arrange to have the personnel and parts necessary to perform the repair delivered to the location of the aircraft. The Maintenance Manager or Coordinator will ensure that the personnel performing any repairs are thoroughly familiar with applicable FSG combined General Operations and Maintenance Manual procedures as well as Aircraft Maintenance Manual procedures. 
Ops Manual 4.2.2
 



Where are the 'next inspection' boxes located on the Aircraft Maintenance Log?  

  Above the Aircraft Discrepancies Section.  
     The next inspection boxes, [hourly, calendar, landing] are located above the aircraft discrepancies section of the AML. The next inspection or maintenance event due, [AD notes, MEL repair intervals, ETC.] on the aircraft will be entered in these boxes by the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator. This will include but not be limited to: 
1) Inspections

2) Airworthiness directives

3) Overhaul items

4) Life limited items

5) MEL repair intervals

6) Carry-Over items

Each box, [hourly, calendar, landing] should be completed and should reflect the next inspection or maintenance event due, regardless of whether each box contains the same or different inspections or maintenance events.

It is the crew’s responsibility to carry this entry forward to each successive maintenance log once it has been established and entered by the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator. It is the PIC’s responsibility to ensure that this time is not exceeded during his/her flight.

Ops Manual 4.2.3

 



Where are the 'next inspection' boxes located on the Aircraft Maintenance Log?  
 
  Above the Aircraft Discrepancies Section.  
     The next inspection boxes, [hourly, calendar, landing] are located above the aircraft discrepancies section of the AML. The next inspection or maintenance event due, [AD notes, MEL repair intervals, ETC.] on the aircraft will be entered in these boxes by the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator. This will include but not be limited to: 
1) Inspections

2) Airworthiness directives

3) Overhaul items

4) Life limited items

5) MEL repair intervals

6) Carry-Over items

Each box, [hourly, calendar, landing] should be completed and should reflect the next inspection or maintenance event due, regardless of whether each box contains the same or different inspections or maintenance events.

It is the crew’s responsibility to carry this entry forward to each successive maintenance log once it has been established and entered by the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator. It is the PIC’s responsibility to ensure that this time is not exceeded during his/her flight.

Ops Manual 4.2.3

 



The Minimum Equipment List includes every piece of equipment or system in the aircraft.  
 
     
 
  False.  
     The Minimum Equipment List does not include every piece of equipment or system in the aircraft. When no specific mention of a unit or system is made in the Minimum Equipment List, it is necessary that the equipment be in place and operative unless it falls into the Carry-Over category. 
When the indicating portion of an aircraft system or component is malfunctioning, it may be necessary to perform appropriate troubleshooting procedures to determine that the fault exists in the indicating system and not in the aircraft system or component, in order to properly apply the requirements of this section.

Should any doubt exist as to interpretation of MEL items, or the proper category of an item, assistance shall be obtained from the Director of Maintenance or the Director of Operations.

Ops Manual 4.3
 




If an item on the MEL is marked with an (O) or (M), the procedure to follow is:  
 
  Listed in the remarks column.  

     Aircraft may be approved for Return to Service in the various configurations allowed by the MEL. If an item is marked with an (O) or (M) the procedure to follow is either listed in the remarks column or in the location specified in the remarks column of the MEL. 
Prior to maintenance being accomplished by any non-company personnel or organization the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator will determine whether that personnel or organization is suitable and qualified.

NOTE: It is the responsibility of the PIC to ensure the aircraft is not flown past the time listed in the “Correct By” column of the Deferred Item Master List and that the (O) procedures in the remarks column of the MEL [if applicable] are complied with prior to or during each flight until the discrepancies are corrected and removed from the Deferred Item Master List or as required by the MEL. It is also the responsibility of the PIC to ensure that the (M) procedure is completed each time it is required, for those deferred items that require a repetitive maintenance function.

Ops Manual 4.4.2
 




The Director of Maintenance is authorized to approve an extension of:  
 
 Category B items.  
     The Director of Maintenance is authorized to approve an extension to the repair interval of Category B and C items for the following reasons: 
NOTE: Category A and D repair intervals are not authorized to be extended.

1) Parts, supplies or special tools not available to perform repairs. [In this case a firm delivery date for the parts, supplies or special tools will be obtained and recorded on the Deferred Item Master List. When the parts, supplies or special tools are received, the Maintenance Manager or Coordinator will schedule the repairs as soon as practicable.

2) Factors beyond the control of the Company. [A statement containing all pertinent information (including scheduled repair date) shall be prepared and a copy attached to the Deferred Item Master List in the Aircraft Maintenance Log].

Ops Manual 4.4.3
 




An inoperative item is required to be placarded if:  
 
  It contains an (*) in the right hand column of the MEL.  
 
     When an authorized inoperative item is required to be placarded [as noted by an asterisk (*) in the right hand column of the MEL] it shall be placarded as follows: 
1) Remove a placard from form #829 and place in the position specified in the MEL. When the position is not specified then the placard shall be placed on or immediately adjacent to the defective instrument, control, switch, or device.

2) A second corresponding placard will also be placed in the column to the left of the deferred item number on the Deferred Item Master List or the number will be written in.

3) If form #829 is not available, a placard may be made from other means.

Ops Manual 4.4.4
 



Which of the following would be considered a 'carry-over' item and not included in the Minimum Equipment List?  
 
  Interior trim is missing.  
 
     Due to the availability of parts, equipment, facilities or manpower, it becomes necessary at times to carry-over certain discrepancies found during maintenance or pilot reported discrepancies that are not of an airworthy nature and NOT listed in the MEL. The carry-over system is used to identify, to the crew or other maintenance personnel that a discrepancy such as a dent or a tolerance approaching an established limit has been identified and has been determined to be within those established limits. It is also to alert the crew and other maintenance personnel of the removal, of optional equipment or equipment not required by the Type Design or Operating Rules, for repair. These items will be, but are not limited to, the following items: 
1) Flight crew comfort items.

2) Cosmetic items, such as cleaning, painting and interior trim.

3) Dents and cracks that are still within limits set forth in the Manufacturers’ structural repair manual or the equivalent.

4) Interim repairs approved by the manufacturer or a Designated Engineering Representative.

Ops Manual 4.5.1
 



If a maintenance discrepancy not listed on the MEL is discovered following pushback, but before takeoff, the takeoff is:  
 
  Prohibited and the aircraft must be returned to the gate.  
     If a maintenance discrepancy is discovered following pushback, but before takeoff, and the MEL procedures for that item require a maintenance action, takeoff is prohibited until the maintenance action is completed and the discrepancy is corrected or deferred and signed off as outlined in this manual. A discrepancy with an item not listed in the MEL will require that the aircraft return to the gate until the discrepancy is corrected and signed off as outlined in this manual. If the item may be deferred in accordance with the MEL and Special Procedures and/or Operating Limitations do not require a maintenance action, the flight may takeoff and continue to the next point of landing. The Maintenance Manager or Coordinator shall be contacted enroute or at the next point of landing for coordination of repairs or deferral. 
Ops Manual 4.6.1
 



What time is required on line #5?  
Answer :   Aircraft time in service at trip start.  




Where is the trip number (8) accessed?  
Answer :   The Trip Sheet.  




If you are making a flight with three legs and one of the legs is a 135 operation and 2 of the legs are 91 what will be circled on line #9?  
Answer :   135.  




What is placed on (13)?  
Answer :   The ICAO identifier.  




 (16) The delay code will be used when delayed greater than:  
Answer :   5 minutes. 



What does (21) 'time in service' mean?  
Answer :   Liftoff to touchdown.  




The name of the passengers will be placed alphabetically on line (27).  
Answer :   False.  




What information is requested on line (36)?  
Answer :   Total time flown in instrument conditions for the identified crewmember.  





(40) must be filled in for which operation?  
Answer :   FAR 135 and 121.  




(13) Enter numbers of gallons of fuel purchased and if on an international flight and amount is in liters convert to gallons.  
Answer :   False. 




What line do you enter tips?  
Answer :   Line 40.  




Where is the tail number listed on the Expense Report?  
Answer :   Line #3.  




How do you stipulate that a travel ticket was unused on the Expense Report?  
Answer :   Check line 6 and attach to form.  




On the Expense Report, if all currency is in U.S. dollars, check line #:  
Answer :   7.  




If the airline company paid for the ticket where is that noted on the Expense Report?  
Answer :   Line #14.  




Where are dues for entertaining clients recorded on the Expense Report?  
Answer :   Line #30.  




Where, on the Expense Report, can you put the expense of company cell phones?  
Answer :   Line #32.  




The In-flight Director's name will be placed on what line of the Aircraft Sector Report?  
Answer :   Line 9.  




If you wanted to request Interior Detailing of an aircraft, what form would you use?  
Answer :   Pilot/Coordinator Aircraft Cleaning Request.  




Flight crews must be given specific details about a patient’s condition when asked to perform a mission by operations.  
 
 
  False.  
 
     
     STRESS RELATED ISSUES 
Flight-crews may experience high stress levels associated with air ambulance service operations due to the potential urgency for responding to emergencies related to preserving human life. It is important that flight crews understand and acknowledge the importance of keeping the safety of the operation as their first priority. Flight crews must emotionally remove themselves from the medical emergency that may be transpiring in the cabin of the aircraft. 

Flight crews must never be given specific details about a patient’s condition when asked to perform a mission by operations. By giving a crew member specific information as to a patient’s condition, a crewmember’s judgment could be potentially impaired subliminally. Therefore a crew should not be told as to whether they will be transporting an infant in cardiac arrest or just making a routine medical transfer from one hospital to another. 

Flight crews must also give adequate attention to crew resource management (CRM) issues associated with inappropriate actions and decisions during periods of stress. One acceptable means that must be used to guard against inappropriate decisions is to require that the individual exercising operational control, the Director of Operations and the PIC agree that the flight can be safely initiated and continued under the present conditions.

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 3
 





Flight crewmembers must receive how many consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion of the assignment?  
 
 
  10.  
     FLIGHT TIME AND REST REQUIREMENTS 
FSG maintains well-defined records showing the difference of flight time, rest time, and off duty or unassigned time, in accordance with FAR Part 135, “Subpart F-Flight Crewmember Flight and Rest Requirements.” FSG has chosen to schedule crews under the requirements of FAR 135.267, unscheduled one and two pilot crews as defined and fully described in Section 6 of the Operations Manual. This section of the Operations Manual contains a description of the specific method to be used to comply with these requirements and describes how records are to be kept to show compliance with the rule used. A statement to paragraph A24 of the Operations Specifications contains the specific section of the Operations Manual that contains these procedures.

According to FAR 135.267, the flight crewmembers are allowed to conduct any flight or other duties as assigned, such as training, testing, routine transport missions, while on duty/assignment. For an assignment conducted under this FAR, flight crewmembers must receive at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion of the assignment.

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 4
 




When should the PIC communicate with Operations to inform them of arrival at the destination airport?  
 
  Within 15 minutes of arrival.  
     FLIGHT LOCATING PROCEDURES 
To ensure the safe and orderly accomplishment of an air ambulance service mission, FSG has developed a flight locating system. Air ambulance operations should always be conducted using IFR flight plans and procedures, except when otherwise authorized by operations specifications. Flight following is a very important part of any crewmembers active communication with our operations staff. Our Operations Manual is clear in that it specifically addresses the requirement of the PIC to notify the Director of Operations or his representative of any unscheduled landing or any change to a flight itinerary. Said representative will always be our operations department. All flight crewmembers must stay in constant contact with their respective operations office staff while on any company assigned trip. 

Proper and current communication procedures incorporate the requirement of all PIC’s to check in routinely prior to takeoff and after their arrival at a planned destination. The PIC will do all of the required communicating with operations and maintenance. This should be done just before departure and within 15 minutes of arrival at the destination airport. 

If it is after normal business hours or if during normal business hours and there are no changes to the trip and all aspects of the mission remain as scheduled, the PIC need only call the dedicated operations “check in” line and leave a recorded message. Please note that this should only be done as a routine “check in” when no interpersonal communication with operations is necessary. When calling this line prior to takeoff the PIC should inform operations as to what the departure and destination airports are and how many passengers are on board the aircraft as well as the passenger’s names. Within 15 minutes after arrival at a destination the PIC should leave a message with operations stating their time of arrival and any pertinent telephone contact information that may be required. This procedure should be followed during and after normal business hours when all aspects of the operation are routine. The communication procedure for non-routine circumstances and events remains the same, IMMEDIATELY TELL SOMEONE PERSONALLY IN OPERATIONS. The procedure for contacting the dedicated operations “check in” line for the relay of routine flight information is as follows:

BDR- 1-203-337-4641, leave message on voice mail. 
PBI - 1-888-519-3525, leave message on voice mail. 
CLT- 1-888-537-0043, leave message on voice mail. 
Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 4&5
 



Medical personnel are not to be considered as crew and are to be treated as passengers at all times to include a pre-flight passenger briefing.  
 
  True.  
 
     
    FLIGHT LOCATING PROCEDURES 
MEDICAL PERSONNEL COMMUNICATION PROCEDURES

Crewmembers must be alerted as to the importance of a proper and complete pre-flight medical personnel briefing. Medical personnel are not to be considered as crew and are to be treated as passengers at all times to include a pre-flight passenger briefing. By complying with the following requirements crew communications will be enhanced between the PIC, SIC and medical personnel. The following checklist should be used by the PIC prior to the commencement of a new trip to ensure that all tasks have been completed prior to departure and as a checklist for a briefing:

• Flight routine and details to include flight/taxi time, routing and weather information;
• Composition of crew;
• Composition of cargo load and passenger count;
• Crew and passenger hotel accommodations;
• Aircraft performance;
• Valid aircraft documentation and paperwork;
• Permits;
• Fuel prices and requirements;
• Jeppesen manuals;
• Funds;
• Visas/Passports;
• Local area restrictions;
• Fumigation;
• Vaccination;
• Special Procedures;
• Crew and Passenger Security Briefing;
• Contact for Co-Pilot, Engineering and Cabin Management Personnel;
• Check in time and flight/duty requirements;
• Catering Requirements;
• Passenger Profile;
• SEP / Safety Briefing
• Special medical requirements.

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 6&7
 



If a flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be maintained, how will the flight crew communciate with the handling flight follower once you've landed?  
 
  Via cell phone.  
     SPECIAL COMMUNICATION PROCEDURES 
It is required that special procedures be instituted which provide Flight Services Group, Inc. with the location, date, and estimated time for re-establishing radio or telephone communications if a flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be maintained. Therefore, anytime that such a condition is predicted to exist the flight crew and the operations flight follower will establish a protocol with the operations department whereby the handling flight follower and the flight crew will communicate via land line or cell phone when on the ground or flight phone or phone patch while airborne. These communication procedures will ensure that actual departure times are transmitted to the flight locating facility.

Standard ATC procedures will be used to ensure that position reports are made at specified intervals and are received by the ATC flight locating facility.

All flight followers will receive adequate training on Flight Services Group, Inc. flight-locating procedures as described in this section for persons assigned flight following duties associated with Air Ambulance Operations. This training is documented in the Flight Followers Training records. 

AIR –TO-GROUND COMMUNICATION

The aircraft used by this organization in air ambulance service is equipped with an air-to-ground communication system that ensures the safe and satisfactory completion of the flight. This system includes VHF communication equipment that is used for communication with ATC and a flight phone system that the flight crew can utilize to coordinate with emergency personnel on the ground (such as the state and local police, and fire departments, when applicable). VHF communication with emergency personnel is typically not possible because of the speed and distances traveled by the fixed wing aircraft that this organization utilizes. All contact telephone numbers will be disseminated to the flight crew prior to departure.

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 7&8
 



A review of the landing site should include:  
 
  Obstacles.  
 
  Restrictions to visibility.  
 
  Wind direction and velocity.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     SCENE RESPONSE OPERATIONS 
Normally the term “scene response” is associated with helicopter operations; however, scene response operations are not limited to helicopters as they may be airplane operations. 

The flight crew will utilize the established communication procedures as described above for in-flight coordination with local authorities. The PIC should establish communication with scene personnel (such as the state and local police, and fire departments, when applicable) as soon as possible after takeoff. 

The operations department in conjunction with Pilot in Command will determine the suitability of all airports utilized based on a review of Jeppesen charts, the Airport Facilities Directory, NOTAM’s or by research with individuals with local airport knowledge. A review of the landing site should include the following:

Obstacles 
Wind direction and velocity 
Restrictions to visibility 
Illumination of obstacles by ground personnel at night 
The operations department and the Pilot in Command with the Director of Security should address crowd control and Security issues. 

The PIC must be aware that non-FAA personnel on the ground may not have been trained to provide the PIC with accurate information from which the PIC can determine the suitability of an airport. The final responsibility for the determination of the suitability of the airport remains with the PIC.

After a landing for a patient pick up, the flight crew should refrain from getting involved with patient care. If the aircraft’s left engine is shut down and the right engine is not shut down, the PIC should remain at the designated aircraft station. The PIC should observe the immediate area surrounding the aircraft to predetermine a safe departure.

NOTE: Aircraft station would be the left seat of the cockpit. The pilot should be vigilant to keep emergency personnel from straying into a danger zone.

The PIC is responsible during scene response operations for ensuring that the Operation Manual safety procedures are complied with for movement in and around the aircraft, including loading and unloading.

Medical personnel should coordinate with flight crew all of the procedures that they will require for all patient loading and unloading. This communication should be accomplished during the pre-flight medical personnel briefing as described above. Medical personnel responsibilities during scene response operations should include only those tasks associated with patient care. 

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 8&9
 



Rested pilots coming on duty should receive information concerning:  
 
  Anticipated flights.  
 
  Name and location of relief pilot.  
 
  Hazard updates.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
     SHIFT CHANGE BRIEFING 
A Shift Change Briefing procedure must be used between flight followers and should be documented with the Operations Turnover Checklist, Form Number OM-17. By using the Operations Turnover Checklist we will ensure that the following:

Aircraft status (such as fuel, maintenance discrepancies) 
Anticipated flights 
Hazard updates 
Schedule changes 
Name and location of relief pilot 
Any other special circumstances 
PROTECTION AND CONTROL OF INFECTTIOUS CONDITIONS 

Flight Services Group, Inc. has established a policy for the disposal and
decontamination of medical or hazardous wastes. Procedures for infection control and for aircraft cleaning might be provided by an associated medical service or hospital or could be contracted to a service company. Inspectors should ensure that precautions for all of the operator’s employees are emphasized in the operations manual.

Post Flight Procedures. The PIC is responsible for ensuring compliance with the operator’s decontamination procedures for the protection from, and control of, infectious conditions. 

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 9&10
 



It is imperative that the Pilot in Command comply with the passenger briefing requirement of Section 8 of the Operations Manual during all Air Ambulance Operations.  
     
 
  True.  
     WEATHER CONSIDERATIONS 
Prior to a flight, the Pilot in Command will insure through a complete weather briefing from an approved source of weather that the flight can be safely conducted under the proposed parameters that are presented to the flight crew. At a minimum, weather considerations should include the capability for obtaining current weather information for the area of operation at the time of the planned flight.

PASSENGER BRIEFING PROCEDURES

It is imperative that the Pilot in Command complies with the passenger briefing requirement of Section 8 of the Operations Manual during all Air Ambulance Operations. Medical crewmembers are to be treated as passengers, therefore the passenger briefing duties cannot be delegated to a medical crewmember, and must be performed by a flight crewmember. As in all Part 135 passenger-carrying operations, passenger briefing cards are required for air ambulance operations. A medical crewmember can be treated as an Able Bodied Person (ABP) per Section 5 of the Operations Manual. 

It is the responsibility of the pilot-in–command (PIC) to ensure that passengers who may pose a hazard to the aircraft or to its occupants are properly restrained before takeoff (such as hysterical patients or combative passengers).

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 10
 




How does the PIC alert ATC to the fact that he is operating an air ambulance flight?  
 
  Use the prefix "Lifeguard".  
 
      IN FLIGHT MEDICAL EMERGENCIES 
During in-flight medical emergency situations, medical personnel should tend to the emergency and not distract the flight crew from their duties associated with operation of the aircraft. A notification of destination change to the flight crew would be an acceptable communication. It is important that medical personnel understand that the PIC must be able to exclude himself from the medical emergency. The PIC should use the “Lifeguard” prefix when communicating with air traffic control (ATC). Pilots should always exercise good judgment in crisis situations.

EMERGENCY EVACUATION PROCEDURES

Evacuation procedures are fully described in Section 5 of the Operations Manual. Medical personnel are passengers and should be considered as Able Bodied Persons (ABP’s) for any discussions associated with emergency evacuation procedures,

REFUELING PROCEDURES

All aircraft re-fueling procures will be in compliance with Section 6 of the Operations Manual.

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 11
 



How many personnel should be utilized when transporting a patient onto the aircraft?  
 
 
  3.  
     TRANSFERRING THE PATIENT ONTO OR OFF OF THE AIRCRAFT 
The primary concern during any patient transport is the safety and comfort of both the patient and the crew. At no time should anyone be placed at risk. It is, therefore, imperative that any and all safety precautions be employed. These may include but are not limited to the use of proper body mechanics, utilizing available personnel for lifting, c-spine immobilization or airway control and protecting the patient from adverse weather. Please use care and compassion during all patient encounters.

To transfer the patient onto the aircraft:

Using a minimum of 3 personnel, place the patient supine on the aircraft stretcher, oriented with the patient’s head at the head of the stretcher. 
Secure all sets of straps including the chest/torso harness such that the patient is comfortable yet secure to the stretcher. 
Secure all IV lines, foley catheters, endotracheal tubes, etc. 
Having prepared an unencumbered path through the aircraft1 and placing one crew member inside the aircraft1 have the remaining personnel (minimum of 2) position the stretcher at the aircraft door and lift the stretcher vertically and, with the utmost care, pass the stretcher feet first through the aircraft door carefully avoiding the door seals. 
Position the stretcher on the stretcher platform and secure checking to ensure both the stretcher is connected solidly with the platform and the patient is secure to the stretcher. At this time the head of the stretcher may be elevated for patient comfort. 
Recheck all patient lines and tubes etc. for integrity and functions. 
You may now proceed with patient/family preflight orientation. 

Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 12


 



Once the patient has been moved off the aircraft, what is the first thing you should do for him?  
 
  Reassess all patient lines and tubes for integrity and function.  
 
     To transfer the patient off of the aircraft:

Check that all IV lines, foley catheters, etc. and stretcher straps are secure. 
Place the patient supine. 
With an adequate number of personnel positioned outside the aircraft. disengage the stretcher from the platform locking mechanism and slide the stretcher head first to the individual waiting in the aircraft door. 
Continue sliding the stretcher while the other personnel outside the aircraft assume progressively more of the load of the stretcher. 
Once outside the aircraft, carefully lower the patient to the tarmac. 
Reassess all patient lines and tubes for integrity and function. 
Protecting the patient from adverse weather, the patient may now be transferred to the waiting ambulance or another stretcher. 
Ops Manual Sect. 15, Pg. 12

 




What are the minimum flight time requirements for a PIC?  
 
  1,500 hours.  
     Using the authority of Operations Specification A057 Flight Services Group, Inc is authorized to use an alternate means of compliance to the weather reporting requirements of FAR 135.225 and the runway landing limitations of FAR 135.385. Appropriate procedures for alternatives to these requirements are fully described in this section of the operations manual. Therefore, in order to take advantage of said operational privileges and procedures the below crew member experience requirements will be effective for all flight crews that are assigned duties that require an "Eligible On Demand Operator". Flight Services Group, Inc. can apply to the administrator to authorize deviations from the stated below total time requirements and crew pairing requirements should the local Flight Standards District Office determine that a specific crewmember has comparable experience and can effectively perform the functions associated with the position in accordance with the requirements of the FAR’s. The Administrator may, at any time, terminate any grant or deviation authority issued under this provision. 

Crew Requirements;

Flight Crew Experience: The PIC must hold an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate with appropriate type rating and have a minimum of 1500 hours total flight time. The SIC must hold a Commercial Pilot’s Certificate with Instrument Rating and have a minimum of 500 hours total flight time. Both PIC and SIC must be current and qualified under the requirements of FAR 135. No PIC will exercise the privileges of this section should he be restricted by the "high minimums" parameters as defined in FAR 135.225(d),

Two Pilot Crew, The flight crew must consist of at least two qualified pilots authorized to conduct operations under the authority of the FSG air carrier certificate for the category and class of aircraft that they intend to operate under the privileges of this section.

Ops Manual Eligible On Demand Pg. 1
 



If the SIC has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as a SIC in that make and model, the PIC, who isn't also a Check Airman, will make landings and takeoffs in which of these conditions?  
 
  The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.  
 
      Pilot Operating Limitations, If the second in command has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command flying in the aircraft make and model and, if a type rating is required, in the type aircraft being flown, and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified check airman, the PIC shall make all takeoffs and landings in all of the following situations:

Landings at the destination airport when a Destination Airport Analysis is required by FAR 135, and in any of the following conditions: 
The prevailing visibility for the airport is at or below mile, 
The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 feet. 
The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, ice or similar contamination that may adversely affect aircraft performance, 
The braking action on the runway to be used is reported as less than "good", 
The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots, 
Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport, 
Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PIC’s authority. 
Ops Manual Eligible On Demand Pg. 1 & 2
 




What is the crew pairing limitation that either the PIC or the SIC must have in that aircraft make and model?  
 
  75 hours.  
   
     Crew Pairing Limitation. Either the PIC or the SIC must have at least 75 hours of flight time in that aircraft make or model and if a type rating is required, for that type aircraft, either as the PIC or SIC.

Ops Manual Eligible On Demand Pg.2
 



The Director of Operations has the authority to make and approve changes to the FAA Approved Destination Airport Analysis Program.  
 
 
     
 
  False.  
 
     
     DESTINATION: AIRPORT ANALYSIS PROGRAM

The purpose of the Destination Airport Analysis Program is to aid flight operations personnel and to provide guidance in the safe conduct of operations utilizing a reduction of FAA required runway length. The Director of Operations is responsible for the control, quality and management of the FAA Approved Destination Airport Analysis Program. Only the FAA has the authority to make and approve changes to the FAA Approved Destination Airport Analysis Program. The Director of Operations has the authority to request changes to the FAA Approved Destination Airport Analysis Program. The Director of Operations shall insure that all operations personnel with Flight Services Group, Inc are properly trained in the procedures associated with the FAA Approved Destination Airport Analysis Program. Annually during competency checks a company check airman will evaluate the effectiveness of the training being given as it relates to this FAA approved program. The Director of Training, Director of Operations and company Check Airman must all interface together to evaluate the training and checking associated with this program and adjust the training if required to correct any knowledge deficiencies.

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 1
 



No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category aircraft for Flight Services Group, Inc. under the authority of FAR 135 may take off that aircraft unless its weight upon arrival, allowing for the normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight, would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within:  
 
  60% of the effective length of the runway from a point 50 ft. above the intersection of the obstruction plane and the runway.  
   Except as provided below, no person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category aircraft for Flight Services Group, Inc. under the authority of FAR 135 may take off that aircraft unless its weight upon arrival, allowing for the normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in the aircraft flight manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60% of the effective length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction plane and the runway. 

The PIC will insure that upon arrival at the destination airport the aircraft is:

Landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction in still air. 
Landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the aircraft and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. 
In accordance with the requirements of FAR 135.23(r) and FAR 135.385 Flight Services Group, Inc has been issued authority through FAA approved Operations Specification C049 to utilize Destination Airport Analysis to establish runway safety margins at destination airports. This authority allows Flight Services Group, Inc., as an FAR 135 operator, to increase to 80% the above described safety margin of 60% of the full stop landing distance of the effective runway length. This increase is effectuated through the proper and legal utilization of FAA approved Destination Airport Analysis. 

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 1
 



In order to take advantage of said procedure prior to departure the PIC will be responsible to take into account:  
 
  The PIC shall insure that the assigned runway matches the performance computations of the Destination Airport Analysis.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of the potential effects, if any, of aircraft inoperative equipment that is properly and legally deferred in accordance with an FAA approved Minimum Equipment List.  
 
  The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of airport or area weather reporting.  
     In order to take advantage of said procedure prior to departure the PIC will be responsible to take into account the following factors as supported by published aircraft performance data, as applicable, supplied by the aircraft manufacturer or other FAA approved source for the appropriate runway conditions that are to be encountered:

Both the PIC and SIC must be current and qualified under the requirements of FAR 135 and meet the "Eligible On Demand Operator" Crew Experience Requirements as defined in this manual. No PIC will exercise the privileges of this section should he be restricted by the "high minimums" parameters as defined in FAR 135.225(d). 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of aircraft performance data to include normal, abnormal and emergency procedures as supplied by the aircraft manufacturer or other FAA approved source. Landing distance calculations should be completed using only FAA approved procedures and data as defined below. Planned takeoff weight for the departure from the airport should be evaluated before operating into that airport. 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of airport facilities and topography. This can be accomplished by a review of the applicable Airport Facilities Directory or by investigating services such as communications, fueling and maintenance, Instrument Approach Plates to include a review of glide path requirements and runway slope and composition, NOTAM’s and VFR Approach Charts if applicable. 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of the current runway conditions including all aspects of potential contamination. This can be accomplished through a complete review of NOTAM’s, Braking Action Reports and PIREP’s. Wet or slippery runways preclude reductions from being taken and in fact require 115% of the distance required under normal circumstances, using 60% of the effective runway length. This distance is calculated by increasing the distance required under dry conditions by an additional 15%. 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of airport or area weather reporting. This can be accomplished by a review and analysis of a combination of the applicable actual and forecasted weather reports for the area and terminal locations if available. The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of appropriate additional runway safety margins. This can be accomplished through a complete review of the applicable Airport Facilities Directory, Instrument Approach Plates, NOTAM’s and local pilot knowledge if available. Note that displaced thresholds, airport construction, and temporary obstacles may impact runway length available for landing. 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of the potential effects, if any, of aircraft inoperative equipment that is properly and legally deferred in accordance with an FAA approved Minimum Equipment List. Flight Services Group will not utilize the privileges of the Destination Airport Analysis procedure should the intended aircraft of operation have the following systems deferred per the FAA approved Minimum Equipment List: 
Anti-Skid System, 
Thrust Reverse System, 
Spoiler/Ground Spoiler system, 
Flap System, 
Any other system that could have a detrimental effect on the associated aircraft’s ability to stop on landing rollout 
The PIC will have a complete and adequate understanding of any and all environmental conditions or other criteria that could potentially affect aircraft performance. Frontal passage usually causes winds to shift, sometimes to a tailwind component. Tailwinds have a significant effect on landing runway length. Thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport can also have an impact on potential wind shear. It is also important to consider the effects of density and pressure altitude on landing performance as well as the effects of ice accumulation on approach and its associated increase in approach speed requirements as it relates to landing distance. 
The PIC shall insure that the assigned runway matches the performance computations of the Destination Airport Analysis. 
The PIC will insure that the flight is not planned to exceed and does not exceed any performance limiting weights. Additionally, the PIC will insure that any decrements or penalties are applied to the performance data when necessary. 
The PIC will insure that the flight is not planned to exceed and does not exceed any performance limiting weights. Additionally, the PIC will insure that any decrements or penalties are applied to the performance data when necessary. 
Many other variables have an effect on landing distance. Approach speed, flap configuration, aircraft weight, tire and brake condition, aircraft equipment and environmental conditions to name a few, all directly impact required landing distance. With these and many other factors considered, it is the pilot who must apply their application through the use of procedures and technique, the latter being highly variable. While specific additives are provided by the manufacturer’s landing data, a pilot usually applies techniques acquired through experience in dealing with similar circumstances. Pilots may opt for an especially smooth landing on longer runways by "floating" in ground effect prior to touchdown. While possibly yielding a smooth landing, this technique will add to the landing distance requirement, as landing data provided by the manufacturer’s data through the certification process assumes a touchdown rate of 8 feet per second. The following tables provide additional insight into factors that could effect landing distance requirements. 

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 1-4
 



When attempting to land and there is a downhill runway slope that has not been accounted for, how will that effect the calculated landing distance?  
 
  Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.  
     REDUCTION OF LANDING DISTANCE

GENERAL PLANNING CONSIDERATIONS

CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
 OPERATIONAL CONSIDERATIONS
 EFFECT ON SAFETY MARGIN
 
3.5 degree glideslope angle
 2.5 to 3 degrees typical
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
8 ft/sec touchdown rate of descent
 2 to 4 ft/sec typical
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
Assumes all approach speed additives bled off before reaching 50
 5-10 knot exceedances not uncommon 
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Longer Flair Distance (float)
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Less than Full Braking
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Delay in obtaining full braking configuration
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Higher temperatures not accounted for 
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Downhill runway slope not accounted for
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Icy, slippery or contaminated runway surface
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Aircraft heavier at time of landing than predicted at time of release
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance. 
 
   Aircraft higher than 50 over threshold
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 
   Airport pressure altitude higher than predicted at time of release
 Actual landing distance will be longer than calculated landing distance.
 

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 5
 




Who will be responsible for the timely distribution of all Destination Airport Analysis data to flight crews?  
 
  Director of Operations.  
     Jeppesen, AeroData and Aircraft Performance Group, Inc. are the FAA approved suppliers of Destination Airport Analysis data to establish runway safety margins at destination airports for Flight Service Group as depicted in the air carrier Operations Specifications. Runway airport analysis performance data is calculated per the requirements of the FAR’s. Prior to utilization of the electronically produced data, the PIC will validate the accuracy and currency of the information.

Document control will be orchestrated through the operations department. Any and all Destination Airport Analysis data will be disseminated to the flight crews by the operations department. No other source within the company will be approved to disseminate this information. The Operations Manager or his designee will be responsible for the timely distribution of all Destination Airport Analysis data to flight crews. The Operations Manager or his designee will be responsible to insure that all Destination Airport Analysis data that is distributed to flight crews is legible, accurate and up to date in the latest form of revision.

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 6
 




The approach climb / brake energy limit is dependent upon reported surface temperature and:  
 
 
  Airport altitude.  
 
 Chart Heading

The chart heading specifies the performance outlined (takeoff or landing), the airport by Identifier, City/State, and Airport Name, and the Aircraft type and Engine.

Approach Climb / Brake Energy Limits

The approach climb limit weights meet the minimum climb gradients required for the approach climb (go-around) phase of landing as defined in the certification FARs Part 25. The approach climb limit weights are determined from the applicable Landing Weight Limits Charts within the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM). In addition, the Landing Weight Limits Charts within the AFM provide information to determine the landing brake energy limit weight. The brake energy limits are included in the approach climb limit in order to remain consistent with the quick reference handbook. The approach climb / brake energy limit is dependent upon reported surface temperature and airport altitude only. Corrections are available to the approach climb limits for Nacelle Heat and Full Anti-ice On.

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 7
 




Landing Hold Short Operations' Runway Identifier is:  
 
 
  HS.  
     Aircraft/Runway Configuration for Landing

Landing data is provided for numerous aircraft/runway configurations. Data is provided for unfactored runway lengths (Dry and Wet), FAR 135 80% factored runway lengths (Dry and Wet), and FAR 135 60% Destination factored runway lengths (Dry and Wet).

4. Runway Identifier
The runway identifier is specified as follows: 
Full length runways indicated by basic identifier i.e. 34L
Landing Hold Shorts Operations (LAHSO) "HS" i.e. 34LHS
Available runway length utilized for analysis
Associated runway slope/gradient.

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 7
 



The Limiting Landing Weight is the HIGHER of the Runway Limit Weight, The Approach Climb/Brake Energy Limit Weight or the Maximum Certified Structural Limit Weight.  
 
     
 
  False.  
     Landing Runway Limit Weight

The runway limit weight for landing distance available is displayed corresponding to given wind component and aircraft/runway configuration.

THE LIMITING LANDING WEIGHT IS THE LOWER OF THE RUNWAY LIMIT WEIGHT, THE APPROACH CLIMB/BRAKE ENERGY LIMIT WEIGHT, OR THE MAXIMUM CERTIFIED STRUCTURAL LIMIT WEIGHT.

Ops Manual Runway Analysis Pg. 7
 



If the critical tailwind is 6 knots and there is a 10 knot tailwind, what would a downwind landing require?  
 
  A reduction in the landing weight.  
 
     Critical Tailwind / Tailwind Penalty

The critical tailwind is the maximum tailwind component at which maximum structural landing weight may be achieved. At all greater tailwind components (to a maximum of -10 knots) the allowable landing weight must be reduced. If the tailwind component exceeds the critical tailwind, multiply the associated figure (pounds) by the number of knots of tailwind in excess of the critical tailwind. Subtract the resulting penalty weight from the zero wind landing limit weight.

Example: If the critical tailwind is 6 knots and there is a 10-knot tailwind, a downwind landing would require a weight penalty calculated as follows:

You must take the difference of 4 knots (10 knots 6 knots) and multiply it by the penalty figure given (SUB LB/KT). The resulting weight should then be subtracted from the maximum zero wind weight. The reduction in landing weight will then allow you to land with the 10-knot tailwind component.

7. AAK 55-83-4/55-84-2

Indicates that the performance data provided is based upon aircraft that incorporate AAK 55-83-4 and AAK 55-84-2.

8. Date

Indicates the date the performance chart was created.
 




FSG flightcrews may begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport that does not have a weather reporting facility if:  
 
  A current altimeter setting is available for the destination airport. If no local altimeter setting is available for the destination airport the pilot may use the current altimeter setting provided by the facility designated on the approach chart for the destination airport.  
 
  All of the answers are correct.  
 
  An alternate airport is filed and has a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator and meets alternate airport weather requirements of 14 CFR Section 135.221.  
 
  The flight crew meets the requirements of 14 CFR Section 135.4 and the “eligible on-demand” requirements of this section /or the deviations granted in operations specification A057.  
     Flight Services Group, Inc. may conduct "eligible on-demand" operations using an alternative procedure to the weather reporting requirement. The alternative allows Flight Services Group, Inc. flight crews to begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport that does not have a weather reporting facility as required by 14 CFR Section 135.225 (b). The use of the alternative procedures may be authorized under the following conditions and limitations:

Flight Services Group, Inc is authorized to conduct "eligible on-demand" operations by the issuance of operations specification A057. 
The flight crew meets the requirements of 14 CFR Section 135.4 and the "eligible on-demand" requirements of this section /or the deviations granted in operations specification A057. 
An alternate airport is filed and has a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator and meets alternate airport weather requirements of 14 CFR Section 135.221. 
A current altimeter setting is available for the destination airport. If no local altimeter setting is available for the destination airport the pilot may use the current altimeter setting provided by the facility designated on the approach chart for the destination airport. 
These "eligible on-demand operations" are conducted in accordance with the conditions and limitations as defined in this section referencing said operations. 
Ops Manual Weather reporting Requirements Pg. 1&2