If you are stung by an insect, you should: Answer : Carefully scrape the site using a blade or a card. Which of the following most accurately describes a person's condition after being bitten by a poisonous snake? Answer : A noticeable bite on the skin, pain and swelling in the area of the bite, labored breathing, nausea. When treating a snakebite, what is one method that should never be conducted? Answer : Suck the venom from the wound with your mouth When caring for a snakebite always apply ice immediately if it is available. Answer : False. What is the first step of the ABC checklist? Answer : Free the airway If a person has an obstructed airway and is not breathing but is conscious, you should: Answer : Ask "Are you choking?". The one rescuer CPR series is comprised of: Answer : 15 compressions/2 ventilations. Blood loss is life threatening if the loss is: Answer : One or more quarts. The priority action for treating an open wound should be to: Answer : Control bleeding. If forced to tie on a tourniquet to stop severe bleeding, loosening of the tourniquet should be accomplished: Answer : By a doctor as soon as you are able to get to one. nternal bleeding: Answer : Is not easily recognized. Which is a not a sign or symptom of shock? Answer : Sunken eyes. When treating a victim for shock, elevate the feet: Answer : Unless the victim has a head injury. A shock victim should not lie down if he: Answer : All of the answers are correct. Do not move an injured person: Answer : Unless they are in danger of further injury. Which of the following would be a desired remedy for accidental poisoning? Answer : Drinking water or milk. When blisters form on the skin from burning, the treatment should: Answer : Keep the blisters from breaking and becoming open wounds that might become infected. If someone experiences third degree burns, you should: Answer : Treat the victim for shock and you should not remove any clothing. Sunburn may be painful if encountered, but can do no damage worth serious consideration. Answer : False. Wet feet should be avoided due to harmful effects (resembling frostbite) at: Answer : Even moderate temperatures. Illness caused by exhaustion, cold weather, and exposure is called: Answer : Hypothermia Heat exhaustion is caused by: Answer : An excessive loss of water and salt. Frost bite should be treated by: Answer : Rewarming the affected area. What should be the first step in treating a compound fracture of the leg? Answer : Treat the patient for shock. If you sprain your ankle, you should: Answer : Leave your shoe on and wrap a cloth around your foot and ankle for support. When treating a limb injury,: Answer : Always suspect a fracture and, if in doubt, splint. When treating a severe eye injury,: Answer : If possible, also cover the other eye to minimize movement of the affected eye. 1. Hyperventilation is a condition that leads to: Answer : An abnormal loss of carbon dioxide. 2. Which could cause hyperventilation? Answer : All of the answers are correct. 3. The excessive loss of carbon dioxide produces: Answer : An alkalotic state. 4. Which symptom of hyperventilation can be both subjective and objective? Answer : Rapid breathing. 5. Which of these can be a treatment for hyperventilation? Answer : A controlled rate of breathing. 6. How can hyperventilation be prevented? Answer : By constant use of the pause breathing method. 1. What is the most important cause of SDO (Spatial Disorientation)? Answer : A conflict between the focal and ambient modes of the visual system. 2. The motion and gravity detecting organs are: Answer : The vestibular system. 3. It is normal for pilots to believe their aircraft "talks" to them. This belief: Answer : Enables much valuable information on aircraft performance and response to be received. 4. You are kept oriented without "thinking" about it by the: Answer : Ambient visual mode. 5. The focal visual mode can keep you oriented but it requires: Answer : All of the answers are correct. 6. What is the focal mode visual field? Answer : Between 2 and 6 degrees. 7. In regard to attention allocation, the ambient visual mode is: Answer : Fast in information processing. 8. What are the three basic elements which lead to disorientation mishaps? Answer : Distraction, time, and illusion. 9. The "Giant Hand" perception can occur during: Answer : Incapacitating disorientation. 10. What do incapacitating and recognized disorientation have in common? Answer : The pilot is aware it is occurring. 1. A key element for occurrence of unrecognized disorientation is distraction during IMC: Answer : In an aircraft that doesn’t "talk" to the pilot. What is the most dangerous vestibular illusion? Answer : Coriolis. The nystagmus illusion: Answer : Almost always follows coriolis illusion. The Giant Hand Phenomenon can occur: Answer : After a steep banked turn or the coriolis illusion. The graveyard spin/spiral illusion occurs: Answer : In IMC after a rotary motion of longer than 20 seconds is stopped. A somotogravic illusion is most probable: Answer : All of the answers are correct What is the best prevention of a visual illusion? Answer : Anticipation. Haze, fog, dust, and smoke can: Answer : Make runways appear further away. If there is a lack of distant objects on which to focus,: Answer : Space myopia may occur. Landing illusions are reduced by: Answer : Standardization of lighting at all fields. Which is a protective measure to prevent flicker vertigo? Answer : Turn off the anti-collision light when possible in weather. Low level cockpit lighting: Answer : Increases the ability to dark adapt and see outside the aircraft Cockpit design can be a factor in spatial disorientation. Why should the airspeed, altitude, attitude, and heading indicators be clustered? Answer : So they can be crosschecked with only eye movement. Frequent transitions from VMC to IMC are dangerous. Each transition can easily take: Answer : 10 seconds or longer. If SDO occurs during IMC, the key to recovery is: Answer : Highly disciplined instrument crosscheck. When using the autopilot during recovery from SDO,: Answer : Keep flying the aircraft mentally and watch the gages as the autopilot makes the recovery. Motion sickness: Answer : Can result after a severe SDO incident. Motion sickness symptoms include: Answer : Apathy. Motion sickness susceptibility decreases: Answer : With good outside references. Which type of hypoxia is caused by a drop of oxygen pressure in the lungs? Answer : Hypoxic hypoxia. What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in air? Answer : 21%. Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures states that the total pressure of a given mixture of gases is: Answer : Equal to the sum of its partial pressures. At 10,000 feet the partial pressure of: Answer : Oxygen is only 68% of what it is at sea level. Differences in partial pressures between two vessels separated by a permeable barrier will: Answer : Equilibrate as a result of gaseous diffusion. Respiration has four distinct subprocesses. The movement of the chest and lungs to move air in and out of the lungs is referred to as: Answer : Breathing. Where is external respiration accomplished? Answer : The alveoli. The lungs provide a surface area for gas exchange of: Answer : 700 to 800 square feet. Oxygen combines with hemoglobin in red blood cells in the blood to form oxyhemoglobin. This process is called: Answer : Saturation. Which condition would result in a reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood? Answer : Sickle cell anemia. Carbon monoxide: Answer : Has a 200 times greater affinity for combining with hemoglobin than does oxygen. Alcohol poisoning can result in histotoxic hypoxia by: Answer : Preventing the tissues from reacting with molecular oxygen. When could blood pooling, a cause of stagnant hypoxia, occur? Answer : All of the answers are correct. Which is a subjective symptom of hypoxia? Answer : Tunnel vision. Which is an objective symptom of hypoxia? Answer : Poor muscular coordination. Chances are that it's too late to do anything to help yourself by the time which subjective symptom of hypoxia is exhibited? Answer : Euphoria. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin, most noticeable in the early stages around the: Answer : Lips. In terms of altitude and arterial saturation, hypoxia: Answer : Has been described as a four stage process. During the indifferent stage of hypoxia, between zero and 10,000 feet, the only demonstrable adverse effect is: Answer : On dark adaptation. Between 10,000 and 15,000 feet a decreasing oxygen supply produces a gradual increase in the heart rate. This occurs during the: Answer : Compensatory stage. In addition to the increased cardiac output during the disturbance stage, the: Answer : Body seems to redistribute blood to those organs most sensitive to oxygen deficit. Hypoxia generally becomes evident at about: Answer : 15,000 feet. At 20,000 feet the period of useful consciousness is: Answer : 15 to 20 minutes. The critical stage of hypoxia is the stage in which: Answer : Consciousness is lost almost immediately. What is the most important individual difference in tolerance to hypoxia? Answer : Acclimatization over a long period of time to living at high altitudes. Physical fitness can improve your tolerance to hypoxia. Which is particularly beneficial? Answer : Aerobic exercises. All other things being equal,: Answer : Oxygen requirements increase as the environmental temperature increases. Under circumstances of rapid decompression, the time of useful consciousness is reduced: Answer : By about 1/3. What is the time of useful consciousness at 43,000 feet? Answer : 15 seconds or less. What is the first of the five steps for treating hypoxia? Answer : Go to 100% oxygen. When remedying hypoxia, check your oxygen equipment to see that it is functioning correctly. Check: Answer : All of the answers are correct The remedy for hypoxia requires that you: Answer : Use the pause breathing method. The "general rule" for oxygen usage is that all occupants must be provided with supplemental oxygen on flights in which the cabin altitude exceeds: Answer : 15,000 feet. Flights of no more than 30 minutes duration without oxygen for the minimum flight crew can be flown up to: Answer : 14,000 feet cabin altitude. Altitude hypoxia occurs whenever the inspired air drops below the pressure required for keeping: Answer : 87% of the blood saturated with oxygen. According to Boyle's Law,: Answer : Gases trapped in body cavities expand as altitude increases. An inflight ear block can occur: Answer : If the lower orifice of the eustachian tube fails to function adequately. An ear block is much more likely to occur: Answer : On descent. Which is an accepted technique for ventilating the ear on ascent? Answer : All of the answers are correct. To prevent an inflight ear block on descent, use the: Answer : Valsalva maneuver. A sinus block is similar to an inflight ear block but: Answer : Can occur only on descent. The recommended first step in treating a sinus block is to: Answer : Ascend until the pain stops. What is the treatment for alleviating ascent related inflight tooth pain? Answer : Descend to the altitude of the departure airport. What is the treatment for alleviating ascent related inflight tooth pain? Answer : Descend to site level. The treatment for alleviating descent related inflight tooth pain is identical to the treatment for: Answer : A sinus block. Which should be avoided prior to flight to reduce the problem of gas expansion in the gastrointestinal tract? Answer : All of the answers are correct. The valsalva maneuver: Answer : Can cause vertigo. Which is a byproduct of the large intestines during normal digestion? Answer : Carbon dioxide. In the event of a rapid or explosive decompression, do NOT: Answer : Attempt to hold your breath. "The amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution." is: Answer : Henry's Law. Henry's Law is demonstrated in the occurrence of: Answer : Decompression sickness. Under conditions of slow decompression (normal ascent),: Answer : Excess nitrogen is vented off harmlessly by the lungs. 4. What is the most common manifestation of decompression sickness? Answer : Bends. 5. The symptom of bends, dull, aching pain in the bones or joints,: Answer : Usually subsides during descent. 6. What is a symptom for paresthesia (creeps)? Answer : Numbness in localized areas of the skin. 7. Chokes, as a manifestation of decompression sickness, are: Answer : Rare, but very dangerous. 8. Type II decompression sickness results from nitrogen bubble formation affecting the: Answer : Central nervous system. 9. What is the threshold altitude for the onset of decompression sickness? Answer : 18,000 ft. 10. Studies have shown that there is an approximately nine fold increase in liability to experience symptoms of DCS between the ages of: Answer : 17 to 20 and 27 to 29. 11. Increased nitrogen content from scuba diving can result in DCS at altitudes as low as: Answer : 8000 feet.