1. A low or medium frequency radio beacon transmits nondirectional signals whereby the pilot of an aircraft properly equipped can determine bearings and "home" on a station. It is commonly known as which of the following? Nondirectional beacons (NDBs) normally operate in the frequency band of 190 to 535 kHz and transmit a continuous carrier with either 400 or 1020 Hz modulation. All radio beacons except the compass locators transmit a continuous three-letter identification in code except during voice transmissions. Ch.1 Sec. 1 Para 1-1-2 At night, radio beacons are vulnerable to interference from distant stations. Nearly all disturbances that affect the ADF bearing also affect the facility's identification AIM 1-1-2 d DME gives slant range distance, not actual horizontal ground distance. 6,000 ft is approximately 1nm. During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. FAA facilities having capability to provide VHF/DF service are identified in the Airport/Facility Directory. Radar=Range azimuth and elevation of objects. Continuous 3 letter=all except compass locators Voice Transmissions over radio beacons unless=Containing a W DME=UHF SSV Standard Service Volume limitations do not apply to published IFR routes or procedures. 4. An NDB classed as "HH" can be used for navigation out to: Answer : 75 nautical miles. Range info on ILS=Marker Beacons or DME LOC course=18 miles from the antenna GS=10 nautical miles unless certified for extended service volume ILS Spurious=maintain alertness Less than 800/2=holding not auth below 5000 MLS=Supplement HUM=report the navaid How many satellites does the GPS receiver need to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude,longitude and altitude) and time solution? Answer : Four satellites. The GPS receiver Verifies=One satellite in addition to those equired for navigation If executig a GPS apprch=Proceed to the MAWP via the FAWP Familiar with inputs especially=During Missed Approaches 3 Bar VASI=Far-red, middle-red, near-white A row of pusling white lights=Land and Hold Short Lights: A stop bar consists of a row of red, unidirectional, steady-burning in-pavement lights installed across the entire taxiway at the runway holding position, and elevated=steady-burning red lights on each side. Aviation orange and white paint is always required for daytime marking on structures exceeding 500 ft (153 m) AGL. This system is not normally installed on structures less than 200 ft The runway aiming point is marked by two rectangular markings consisting of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately: Answer : 1,000 feet from the landing threshold. Runway touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone information in 500 feet (150m) increments. These markings information in 500 feet (150m) increments. VFR Flyways are depicted on the reverse side of some of the FAA uses Coordinated Universal Time (UTC or Z) for all operations. To convert from Central Standard Time to UTC, you should: Answer : Add 6 hours. Current time in use at a station is stated in the nearest quarter minute in order that pilots may use this information for time checks. When approaching an airport with an operating control tower you realize your radio is not working. What action should you take if you see a steady red light from the control tower? Answer : Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. Initial callup should be made about 15 miles from the airport. A segmented circle visual indication system installed at an airport not having a tower, an FSS, or a UNICOM is designed to: Answer : Provide traffic pattern information. Gate Hold=more than 15 minutes An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operating within a Class B, C, D, or E surface area when the weather is less than that required for VFR flight. 40 miles of the antenna=3 miles separation Min ATC speed 10,000-FL280=250Kts/equiv Mach. Briefing=Have read published NOTAMS Except for operations in or penetrating a coastal or domestic Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) or Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ), a flight plan is not required for VFR fligt. Nonscheduled operations=4 hours before ETD It is recommended that pilots file the maximum transponder or navigation capability of their aircraft in the equipment suffix. This will provide ATC with the necessary information to utilize all facets of navigational equipment and transponder capabilities available. Pre-Taxi=10 Minutes prior to taxi "Cleared as filed" does NOT include the en route altitude filed in a flight plan. An en route altitude will be stated in the clearance or the pilot will be advised to expect an assigned or filed altitude within a given time frame or at a certain point after departure. This may be done verbally in the departure instructions or stated in the DP. Ch. 5, Sect. 2, P A parallel (dependent) approach is an ATC procedure permitting parallel ILS, MLS, or ILS and MLS approaches to airports having parallel runways separated by at least: Answer : 2,500 feet between centerlines during the outbound leg, triple the drift angle held on the inbound leg. Distress communications have absolute priority over all other communications and the word "MAYDAY" commands radio silence on the frequency in use. A successful aircraft ditching is dependent on three primary factors. In order of importance they are: > Sea conditions and wind. 5. When ditching an aircraft, the pilot should remember to: Answer : Avoid landing perpendicular to the face of the swell. 6. If the secondary swell system is from the same direction as the wind when ditching an aircraft, the pilot should land: Answer : Parallel to the primary system, with the wind and secondary system at an angle 8. In a special emergency (air piracy), the pilot should use which transponder setting? Answer : Mode 3/A, Code 7500. > Fly a course toward the destination which the hijacker has announced. AWW Broadcast within 150 miles of ARTCC Juristiction. If contact cannot be established or revised ATC clearance or advisory is not available and deviation from track is required, the pilot shall take the following actions: Deviations of less than 10 NM or operations within COMPOSITE (NOPAC and CEPAC) Airspace, should REMAIN at ASSIGNED altitude. A pilot can expect icing when flying in visible precipitation, such as rain or cloud droplets, and the temperature is between 02 and -10 degrees Celsius. It is very important to understand what TDWR does NOT DO: and, it DOES NOT detect turbulence. If there is no station within 100 nautical miles, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station shall be used as a reference. When the vortices of larger aircraft sink close to the ground (within 100 to 200 feet), they tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of 2 or 3 knots. Small landing behind a heavy 5 Miles Many airports advise pilots of other wildlife hazards caused by large animals on the runway through the A/FD and NOTAM. The ten most frequent accident cause factors are: Inadequate preflight preparation and/or planning; Failure to obtain and/or maintain flying speed; Failure to maintain direction control; Mountain Wave=15 knots or better Breath and blood for at least 3 hours Fatigue=Acute and Chronic The ability to take corrective and protective action is lost in 20 to 30 minutes at 18,000 feet and 5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon thereafter by unconsciousness. Every occupant of an aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet. Elevator Illusion=An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. Local Flow Traffic Management Program = minimize the impact of aircraft noise and conserve fuel. Select and touch down in any area (only about 500 feet is needed) where the shadows and whitecaps are not so numerous. Ditching=10-20% over stalling speed until contact is made. Max RVR Nonprecision=2400 Pilots should contact Ground Control or Clearance Delivery prior to starting engines as gate hold procedures will be in effect whenever departure delays exceed or are anticipated to exceed 15 minutes.