In which part of the Federal Air Regulations can you find definitions and abbreviations? Part 1.1. If you are in doubt about the meaning of a term or the meaning of an abbreviation used in the U.S. Air Traffic Control System, Part 1 of the regulations defines such terms and abbreviations. FAR 1.1 2. Under which part of Federal Air Regulations will you find the requirements for issuance of a specific pilot or instructor certificate? Part 91. Part 1. Part 61. Part 67. (a) This part prescribes: (1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings. (2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those authorizations. FAR 61.1(a) 3. To which of the following authorities must you show your pilot certificate if he requests to see it? Any of these officers. Local sheriff. FBI Agent. Representative of the Federal Aviation Administrator. Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by this part must present it for inspection upon a request from: 1) The Administrator; meaning any FAA 2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board 3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. FAR 61.3(l) 4. A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be removed: After the passage of at least 180 days from when the limitation was placed on the airman's certificate. Provided the person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation. Within one year of the date on which the limitation was placed on the airman's certificate. False. A limitation placed on a person"s airman certificate may be removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought. FAR 61.13 (b) 5. What can occur if you refuse to submit to a test for alcohol when requested? Denial of pilot license until a certificate of completed alcohol rehabilition has been received. Denial of an application under this part for a period of 36 months. Suspension of license for a period of not more than 5 years. Denial of an application for any certificate under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal. A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with FAR 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator in accordance with FAR 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for: Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. FAR Part 61.16 (a) 6. If you have met the requirements of a certificate and an FAA authority issues you a temporary certificate, it is valid for: 60 days. 30 days. 90 days. 120 days. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part. A temporary Pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating expires: 1. On the expiration date shown on the certificate; 2. Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or 3. Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought is denied or revoked. FAR 61.17 (a) 7. Under which part of Federal Air Regulations can you find the medical requirements for medical certificates? Part 61. Part 97. Part 91. Part 67. While FAR 61.23 sets forth the duration of medical certificates the medical standards for the medical certificate are to be found in FAR Part 67. FAR 67.1 8. Which of the following does not require that the pilot have a type rating? A flight instructor who is giving instrument instruction in a small aircraft. A helicopter pilot who is flying in an operation which requires that he have an ATP Certificate. The pilot of a large airplane. The pilot of a turbojet airplane. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air). Turbojet-powered airplanes. Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures. Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating. FAR 61.31 (a) 9. Which of the following must be included in a pilot logbook entry if that entry is required? Date and total flight time. Type and identification of the aircraft. Location where the aircraft departed and arrived. All of the answers are correct. (1) GENERAL Logbook entries. For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged: (i) Date. (ii) Total flight time or lesson time (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred. (iv) Type and identification of aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device, as appropriate. (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by FAR 91.109(b) FAR 61.51(b) 10. No person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has: Had an FAA practical test within the last 6 months. Made at least three takeoffs and three landing within the preceding 90 days. Performed at least six hours of Instrument flight within the last six months. All the answers are correct. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and - (i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; and (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel. FAR 61.57(a) 1. If a pilot makes a change of his permanent mailing address, he must notify the FAA. If he doesn't, his pilot privileges are suspended after: 10 days. 90 days. 30 days. 60 days. The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder"s current residential address. FAR 61.60 2. Which part of Federal Air Regulations prescribes rules governing the operation of aircraft, which are operated within the United States, including the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast? Part 91. Part 97. Part 67. Part 61. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and 91.703, this part prescribes rules governing the operation of aircraft (other than moored balloons, kites, unmanned rockets, and unmanned free balloons, which are governed by part 101 of this chapter, and ultralight vehicles operated in accordance with part 103 of this chapter) within the United States, including the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast. FAR 91.1(a) 3. If a Pilot in Command deviates from a rule during an in-flight emergency, he must upon request, submit a written report to: The Chief of the ATC facility. The Administrator. The Director of Flight Operations. His Chief Pilot. The Administrator is defined in Part 1 as: The Federal Aviation Administrator or anyone to whom he has delegated his authority in the matter concerned. FAR 91.3(c) 4. Which of the following are required by FARs regarding operation of civil aircraft? All the answers are correct. If there is an approved flight manual, it must be carried in the aircraft during flight operations. Compliance with markings and placards in the aircraft is mandatory. Compliance with operating limitations is mandatory. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry. (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft for which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual provided for in 121.141(b). FAR 91.9 5. You may not drop an object from an aircraft in flight. This is not true if you have obtained prior permission from the FAA to drop the object. This is true under any circumstance. True, if a hazard to persons or property is created. There is no prohibition from dropping objects from aircraft. No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. FAR 91.15 6. According to Part 91, if you noticed that one of your passengers was smoking a marijuana cigarette and you chose to look the other way, would you be violating regulations? Yes. No, provided that the No Smoking light was not on or required to be on. Only if the person smoking appeared to be intoxicated. Only if the person smoking was seated in a No Smoking section. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft. FAR 91.17(b) 7. Most electronic devices are prohibited from being operated on an aircraft. Three of the following may be operated, which one may not? Implanted heart pacemaker. Electric shaver. Portable voice recorder. FM radio. Also exempted are hearing aids and any other devices which the operator has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft. FAR 91.21 8. As a preflight action, for a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must familiarize himself with all available information concerning the flight. As a minimum, this information must include: Weather reports and forecasts. Fuel requirements. Any known traffic delays. All of the answers are correct. Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include: For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC. FAR 91.103 9. Part 91 requires that flight crewmembers remain at their stations with their seat belts fastened during the flight except: In connection with physiological needs or perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft. That he may undo his seat belt during cruise flight. For smoke breaks. That he may undo his seat belt after takeoff and fasten it before landing. Flight crewmembers at stations. During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs. This paragraph does not apply if the seat at the crewmember’s station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or the crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. FAR 91.105 10. Part 91 includes which requirements regarding passenger seat belts as a Pilot in Command's responsibility? Installation of the passenger seat belts. All of the answers are correct. Briefing passengers on how to fasten and unfasten their seat belt. Maintenance of the passenger seat belts. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator: (1) No pilot may takeoff a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person"s safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. FAR 91.107(a)(1) 1. Formation flight is authorized under what conditions? No passengers for hire may be carried and there must be prior arrangement between all pilots. The formation flight must be conducted by military aircraft. No passengers can be carried on any aircraft engaged in formation flight. There must be radio coordination between the pilots. OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight. FAR 91.111(b) & (c) 2. Which of the following aircraft has the right of way over the others? An airplane on approach at 400' AGL. A helicopter on approach at 500' AGL. An aircraft which has just completed a landing and has just taxied off the main runway. An aircraft which is waiting to takeoff from the same runway. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft. FAR 91.113 3. If converging, which aircraft has the right of way? A balloon. A helicopter. A glider. An airship. CONVERGING: When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other"s right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are of different categories: (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; and (3) An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine driven aircraft. FAR 91.113 (d) 3. If converging, which aircraft has the right of way? A balloon. A helicopter. A glider. An airship. CONVERGING: When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other"s right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are of different categories: (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; and (3) An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine driven aircraft. FAR 91.113 (d) 5. A pilot operating at an airport having an operational control tower requires clearance for: Landing and takeoff only. Landing, takeoff, and taxi. Landing only. Takeoff only. Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC. A clearance to "taxi to" the takeoff runway assigned to the aircraft is not a clearance to cross that assigned takeoff runway, or to taxi on that runway at any point but is a clearance to cross other runways that intersect the taxi route to that assigned takeoff runway. A clearance to "taxi to" any point other than an assigned takeoff runway is clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to that point. FAR 91.129 (i) 6. If taking off from a satellite airport without an operating control tower located in Class D airspace, when must the pilot of a VFR flight contact the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace? Before departing the controlled airspace. After departing the controlled airspace. Before takeoff. As soon as practicable after departure. Each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications when w/in that airspace. (2) Departing flight. Each person: (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace as soon as practicable after departing. FAR 91.129 (c)(ii) 7. Which of the following is required if operating VFR in Class B airspace? An operable two-way radio capable of communication with ATC on appropriate frequencies. None of the answers are correct. An operating transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment. Both an operable two-way radio and an operable transponder with altitude reporting capability. For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area. Transponder requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in paragraph (a) of 91.215, except as provided in paragraph (d) of that section. FAR 91.131(c) & (d) 8. The Administrator has the authority to issue a regulation or rule immediately upon determination that any emergency condition exists which is detrimental to the FAA's ability to operate the air traffic control system. False. True. Whenever the Administrator determines that an emergency condition exists, or will exist, relating to the FAA"s ability to operate the air traffic control system and during which normal flight operations under this chapter cannot be conducted consistent with the required levels of safety and efficiency (1) The Administrator issues an immediately effective air traffic rule or regulation in response to that emergency condition; and (2) The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of the rule or regulation. FAR 91.139(b) 9. At which of the following altitudes and above does the minimum VFR visibility of 5 miles apply? 600' AGL. 10,000' MSL. 14,500' MSL. 18,000' MSL. BASIC VFR WEATHER MINIMUMS CLASS E AIRSPACE Minimum flight visibility: Less than 10,000 ft. MSL - 3 miles. At or above 10,000 ft. MSL - 5 miles. FAR 91.155 10. What is the minimum cloud clearance for an aircraft operating in Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL? 500' above, 1,000 below, 2,000 horizontal. Clear of clouds. 1,000' below, 1,000' above, 1,000' horizontal. 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal. BASIC VFR WEATHER MINIMUMS Class G: Less than or equal to 1,200 feet AGL (regardless of MSL altitude). Day, except as provided in 91.155(b). 1 statute mile Clear of clouds. Night, except as provided in 91.155(b). 3 Statue Miles 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision. FAR 91.155 . Mandatory cruising altitudes are required for VFR flights in cruise more than: 3000' MSL. 5000' MSL. 3000' AGL. 5000' AGL. Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC: (a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and - (1) On a magnetic course of 0 through 179, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or (2) On a magnetic course of 180 through 359, any even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500). When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. FAR 91.159 2. Pilot currency requirements and controlled airspace visibility requirements all have "night" criteria. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. Sunset to sunrise as published by the US Naval Observatory for the nearest degree of latitude. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes prior to sunrise in latitudes below 30N. Sunset to sunrise. "Night" means: The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time. FAR 1.1 3. Which of the following instruments are required for day VFR flight? Tachometer for each engine and a temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine. Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank. Airspeed indicator, altimeter and magnetic direction indicator. All of the listed instruments. Visual flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required: Airspeed indicator. Altimeter. Magnetic direction indicator. Tachometer for each engine. Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system. Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine. Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine. Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine. Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank. Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a retractable landing gear. FAR 91.205(b) 4. Except in Alaska, during what period must an aircraft have lighted position lights? Sunset to sunrise. 1 hour after sunset till 1 hour before sunrise. 1 hour before sunrise till 1 hour after sunset. From the end of evening civil twilight until the start of morning civil twilight. No person may: (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon) - (1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights; (2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft - (i) Is clearly illuminated; (ii) Has lighted position lights; or (iii) Is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights. FAR 91.209 5. Under which conditions may an aircraft be operated with inoperative instruments or equipment installed? Under a letter of authorization issued by the airframe manufacturer. Under no circumstances. Under a letter of authorization approved by the FAA Administrator Certification Branch. If an approved Minimum equipment list exists and a letter of authorization issued by the FSDO is carried on board. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may takeoff an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by the FAA Flight Standards district office having jurisdiction over the area in which the operator is located, authorizing operation of the aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The letter of authorization may be obtained by written request of the airworthiness certificate holder. The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of authorization constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft. FAR 91.213(a) 6. 4096 code transponders with Mode C are required for operations in: Class A airspace. All of the answers are correct. Class B airspace. Class C airspace. 4096 code transponders are required in all the stated airspace areas. FAR 91.215(b)(1) 7. If you have an approved TCAS installed in the aircraft: You must have that system on and operating during flight. Operation of the TCAS is at pilot discretion. You should operate it upon request of ATC. None of the answers are correct. Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use. (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Any traffic alert and collision avoidance system installed in a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must be approved by the Administrator. (b) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system, operation required. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable traffic alert and collision avoidance system shall have that system on and operating. FAR 91.221 8. Which is a requirement to define an area acceptable for test flights? All answers are part of the complete description. Over sparsely populated areas. Areas having light air traffic. Over open water. 91.305 Flight test areas. No person may flight test an aircraft except over open water, or sparsely populated areas, having light air traffic. FAR 91.305 9. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? The owner/operator. The Chief Pilot. The Chief of Maintenance. The Pilot in Command. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter. FAR 91.403 10. Which item of equipment must have been inspected during the preceding 24 calendar months? Transponder. Airspeed indicator. Navigation radio. Communications radio. No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 91.215(a), 121.345(c), or Sec. 135.143(c) of this chapter unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of the FARs. FAR 91.413 1. What is the maximum airspeed at which an aircraft can operate in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace? 250 knots. 150 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots. Aircraft speed. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an IAS of more than 250 knots (288 mph). (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an IAS 200 knots (230 mph). This does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall not exceed an IAS of 250 knots. No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an IAS of more than 200 knots. FAR 91.117(b) 2. Under which of the following conditions may a pilot conduct a VFR flight in Class A airspace? None of the answers are correct. Both a transponder w/altitude reporting and operable two-way radio communications are required. The aircraft must have an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC. The aircraft must be equipped with a transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment. Operations in Class A airspace. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in compliance with the following: (a) Clearance. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace. (b) Communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while operating in Class A airspace. FAR 91.135 3. An airplane flying in VFR conditions at night must carry enough fuel to reach the destination plus: 45 minutes. 20 minutes. 15 minutes. 30 minutes. Add’l Info: C98_8 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions. (a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed (1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. FAR 91.151 4. What is the minimum cloud clearance at which an aircraft may operate if below 10,000' MSL and above 1200' AGL in Class G airspace? 1000' below, above, and horizontal. 500' above, 1000' below, and 2000' horizontal. 1000' below and above and 1 mile horizontal. 500' below, 1000' above, and 2000' horizontal. For any aircraft operating VFR, in Class G Airspace, the cloud clearance required if at or above 1200’ AGL and below 10,000’ MSL is: • Above – 1,000’ • Below - 500’. • Horizontal – 2,000’. This is true for both Day and Night. FAR 91.155 5. The crew must use oxygen at all times when an unpressurized aircraft operates at altitudes above: 14,000'. 12,000'. 12,500'. 10,000'. (a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 [MSL] unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. FAR 91.211(a)(2) 6. On aircraft manufactured after March 29, 2002, no person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with: All the answers are correct. An approved terrain awareness and warning system. An alitude alerting system. Altitude reporting equipment. Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002. No person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that as a minimum meets the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. On aircraft manufactured on or before March 29, 2002 may operate until brought into compliance or until March 29, 2005. FAR 91.223 7. "Extended over water operation", with respect to aircraft, other than helicopters, means an operation over water: More than 50 nautical miles from the nearest suitable landing area. Beyond gliding distance to land for more than 45 minutes duration. More than 25 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline. More than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline. "Extended over water operation" means: With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline; and With respect to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nautical miles from an offshore heliport structure. FAR 1.1 8. What is the maximum airspeed at altitudes below 10,000'? 250 knots. 200 knots. 280 knots. 156 knots. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, (or by ATC in the case of operations in Class A or B airspace), no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots. FAR 91.117(a) 9. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft flying at or below 2500 ft. above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class D airspace? 156 knots for reciprocating, 200 knots for turbine powered aircraft. 200 knots. 150 knots. 250 knots. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2500 ft. above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph). FAR 91.117(b) 10. What is the maximum airspeed for an aircraft flying in airspace underlying Class B airspace? 156 knots. 250 knots. No restriction. 200 knots. The maximum airspeed for an aircraft flying in airspace underlying Class B airspace is 200 knots. The maximum airspeed for an aircraft flying within Class B airspace is 250 knots. FAR 91.117(c) 11. What is the minimum altitude for an airplane flying over a congested area? 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. Minimum safe altitudes: General. (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. FAR 91.119(b) 12. Turbine powered airplanes must maintain which traffic pattern altitude when operating in Class D airspace? 1500'. 1200'. 1000'. 2000'. Minimum Altitudes. When operating to an airport in Class D airspace, each pilot of: A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing. FAR 91.129(e)(1) 13. What is the required visibility for an airplane which is not in the airport traffic pattern but is below 1200' AGL in Class G airspace at night? 1/2 mile. 1 mile. 2 miles. 3 miles. Night, except as provided in 91.155(b). 3 Statute Miles: 1,000’ Above 500’ Below 2,000’ Horizontal 91.155(b) Class G Airspace. Notwithsanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface: (2) Airplane. When the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway. FAR 91.155(a) 14. To land an airplane at a private airport within Class E airspace at night, under VFR, with a visibility reported as 2 miles you must: Obtain ATC clearance. All of the answers are correct. Be qualified under FAR 61 for instrument flight. Remain clear of clouds. You do not meet the basic VFR visibility minimums, therefore, you require a special VFR clearance from ATC. With a special VFR clearance you must still remain clear of clouds. To operate special VFR between sunset and sunrise the pilot must meet the applicable requirements of FAR Part 61 for instrument flight. FAR 91.157 15. For a fixed wing aircraft, the minimum flight visibility, if no ground visibility is reported, to take off or land at any airport under special VFR, is: There is no such requirement. One statute mile. Clear of clouds. One mile (sunrise to sunset), three miles (sunset to sunrise). Special VFR: No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a helicopter) at any airport under special VFR: 1) Unless the ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 statute mile; or 2) If ground visibility is not reported unless the flight visibility is at least one statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position if: (i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and (ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities. FAR 91.157 16. No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device. False. True. No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce unless that airplane is equipped with a compliant aural speed warning device. FAR 91.603 17. No person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an altitude alerting system. False. True. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbojet-powered U.S.-registered civil airplane unless that airplane is equipped with an approved altitude alerting system or device that is in operable condition and meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. FAR 91.219(a) 1. After reaching an alternate airport, what approach minimums apply? 1500 and 2 if the instrument approach is not available. 600 and 2 for an operating ILS approach. The published landing minimums at the alternate airport. The IFR alternate minimums. The listing of an airport on the flight plan as an alternate does not affect the weather minimums which exist for the approach. FAR 91.175(a) 2. When making a VOR ground check using a published ground check point, the required tolerance is: +/- 2 degrees. +/- 4 degrees. +/- 3 degrees. +/- 6 degrees. Each person conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the Administrator, or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is ±4°). FAR 91.171(b)(2) 3. If you make a required VOR equipment check for IFR operations, what must be entered in the aircraft log book or other record? Date. Place & bearing error. Signature of the person making the check. All the listed answers are required for a proper entry. Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, if a test signal radiated by a repair station, as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft log or other record by the repair station certificate holder or the certificate holder"s representative certifying to the bearing transmitted by the repair station for the check and the date of transmission. FAR 91.171(d) 4. While in Class D airspace, an aircraft pilot performs an ILS to a runway equipped with VASI. If he achieves visual contact with the landing runway and continues his approach to land, he should: Disregard the VASI glideslope and finish the landing visually. Remain at or above the VASI glideslope during his visual approach until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Use his own discretion regarding the VASI glideslope. Request that the VASI glideslope be turned off. An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator, shall maintain an altitude at or above the glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. FAR 91.129(e)(3) 5. Which DH or MDA is authorized for use by an IFR pilot? The highest DH or MDA listed in the other answers. The DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure. The DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped. The DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command. Authorized DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorized DH or MDA is the highest of the following: 1) The DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure. 2) The DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command 3) The DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped. FAR 91.175 Takeoff and Landing under IFR 6. What is/are the required weather minimum/s to descend below the DH or MDA on an instrument approach? The ceiling and visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. The ceiling as prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. The ceiling, visibility and slant range prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. The flight visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. Operation below DH or MDA. Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, at any airport below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DH unless-- (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. FAR 91.175(c) 7. To be able to descend below 100' on an ILS approach, in addition to the approach light system the pilot must be able to see: The runway threshold, threshold markings or the threshold lights. The runway or its markings or the runway lights. Any one of the items listed in the other answers. The VASI or the runway end identifier lights. Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable; The threshold; The threshold markings; The threshold lights; The runway end identifier lights; The VASI; The touchdown zone or its markings or its lights; The runway or its markings or the runway lights. FAR 91.175 (c) 8. What is the correct conversion of 2400' RVR to a visibility? 3/8 mile. 3/4 mile. 7/16 mile. 1/2 mile. The complete conversion table can be found in FAR 91.175. 1600 feet 1/4 mile 2400 feet 1/2 mile 3200 feet 5/8 mile 4000 feet 3/4 mile 4500 feet 7/8 mile 5000 feet 1 mile 6000 feet 1 1/4 mile FAR 91.175(h) 1. "No PT" on an instrument approach procedure means: No pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC. A procedure turn is not required. Make a straight-in approach. A procedure turn is mandatory. Limitation on procedure turns. In the case of a radar vector to a final approach course or fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or an approach for which the procedure specifies "No PT," no pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC. FAR 91.175(j) 2. Which of the following can be substituted for either an inoperative outer marker or an inoperative middle marker? Fixes from an NDB. Compass locator or precision radar. DME. VOR. A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the outer or middle marker. DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure or surveillance radar may be substituted for the outer marker. FAR 91.175(k) 3. If the glideslope becomes inoperative during the conduct of an ILS approach, the pilot should: Raise the MDA by 50'. Raise the DH by 50'. Use straight-in localizer minimums. Raise the DH by 100'. 4. If flying an IFR direct flight in mountainous terrain in uncontrolled airspace, the pilot should plan to fly a minimum altitude which is at least: 2,500' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. 2,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. 3,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below: (1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed in Parts 95 and 97 of this chapter; or (2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in those parts: (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown; or (ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. FAR 91.175(2)(i) 5. Unless there is an MCA, when shall a climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude begin? Immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies. It must be completed before reaching the point which a higher altitude applies. Before reaching the point beyond which a higher minimum altitude applies. At the pilot's discretion. Climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall begin immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA. FAR 91.177(b) 6. Which is an authorized IFR altitude if flying in uncontrolled airspace? 090 degrees - 7,500'. 090 degrees - 6,000'. 090 degrees - 7,000'. 090 degrees - 6,500'. In uncontrolled airspace, except while in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in uncontrolled airspace shall maintain an appropriate altitude as follows: (1) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and (i) On a magnetic course of 0 through 179, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 through 359, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000). FAR 91.179(b)(i) 7. While climbing to your assigned altitude on an airway, you: Climb to the right side of the centerline. Remain on the centerline except to avoid other aircraft or clearing in VFR conditions. Should always make shallow clearing turns. Must always remain on the centerline. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows: On a Federal airway, along the centerline of that airway. On any other route, along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent. FAR 91.181 8. An IFR pilot under radar control in controlled airspace: Need make no position reports. Must make only those position reports as requested by ATC. Must make position reports at least once each hour. Must make position reports at all designated reporting points. The pilot in command of each aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency and shall report by radio as soon as possible: (a) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported, Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and Any other information relating to the safety of flight. FAR 91.183(a) 1. If the pilot of an IFR flight experiences total communications failure while flying along a federal airway during the enroute phase of his flight, and while in IFR weather conditions, which is the route the pilot should fly? None of the choices are correct. The route filed in the flight plan. The route which has been received in the last ATC clearance. The most direct route to the destination. (1) Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. FAR 91.185(c)(1) 2. If you lose communications on an IFR flight in IFR weather conditions, which is correct? Immediately turn toward an area of VFR weather conditions. Fly the lowest of 3 altitudes; last assigned, MEA, or altitude you have been told to expect in a clearance. Fly the highest of 3 altitudes; last assigned, MEA, or altitude you have been told to expect. Adjust your flight plan to land at the nearest available IFR airport. In IFR conditions, with lost communications, fly the highest of: MEA. Last assigned, or Expect further clearance altitude. FAR 91.185(c)(2) 3. If while holding at a fix other than initial approach fix you lose communications, when should you leave the hold? Remain at the holding fix as long as it takes to re-establish communications. Leave the holding fix immediately. Leave the holding fix at your ETA as calculated based on your estimated time enroute. At the expect further clearance time. If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one has been received , or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time enroute. FAR 91.185(c)(3 4. If on an IFR flight in VFR weather conditions and you experience radio failure, the correct procedure is: Maintain the highest of 3 altitudes, MEA, last assigned altitude, or an expected altitude. To use your best judgment regarding the correct altitude. Maintain VFR and land as soon as practicable. Maintain the lowest of 3 altitudes, MEA, last assigned, or an expected altitude. If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with Sec. 91.185. If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if- > Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums; > Visual contact with the tower is maintained; > A clearance to land is received. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. FAR 91.185 (b) 5. In executing an instrument approach you have reached "DH" and you have identified the runway approach light system (not including the red terminating bars or red side row bars). You may now: Descend no lower than 100' above the touchdown zone elevation. Descend to a landing. Continue the approach. Execute a missed approach. Identification of the approach light system only allows descent to no lower than 100" above touchdown zone elevation. To descend further identification of the red terminating bars or red side row bars is required or identification of one of the other listed criteria in Part 91.175. FAR 91.175 (c)(3) 6. The altimeter of an aircraft which is to be flown under IFR, must be inspected each: 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months. 18 calendar months. Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports. The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight. In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the pilot in command shall include the: (1) Aircraft identification; (2) Equipment affected; (3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and (4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC. FAR 91.411 (a) 7. On an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions, is it permissible to make a clearing turn prior to descent? Yes. No. Flight crewmembers at stations. (a) During takeoff and landing, and while enroute, each required flight crewmember shall - (1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs; and (2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This paragraph does not apply if - (1) The seat at the crewmember"s station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or (2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. FAR 91.105 8. Under which part of Federal Air Requirements can you find the medical requirements for medical certificates? Part 91. Part 97. Part 61. Part 67. Applicability. This part prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining eligible for a medical certificate. FAR 67.1 1. Which of the following is a fuel requirement for IFR flight? After reaching the alternate, fuel to fly at normal cruise speed for 45 minutes. All of the listed items are requirements. Fuel to fly from the destination airport to the alternate airport. Fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to: Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. FAR 91.167(a) 2. What are the airplane standard alternate minimums for a nonprecision approach? Ceiling 600' and visibility 2 miles from one hour before to one hour after the scheduled ETA. Ceiling 800' and visibility 2 miles from one hour before to one hour after the scheduled ETA. Ceiling 800' and visibility 2 miles at the time of arrival. Ceiling 600' and visibility 2 miles at the time of arrival. For aircraft other than helicopters: The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima: (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. (ii) For helicopters: Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and (2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR. FAR 91.169(c)(1) 3. Other than for part 121 or Part 135 use, pilots who receive authorization for Category II or Category III approaches should know that this authorization expires: At the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. At the end of the 12th calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. When the pilot no longer has a valid airman's certificate. At the end of the 24th calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use). A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of aircraft for which the authorization is held. A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was accomplished in that type aircraft. FAR 61.21 4. If an IFR pilot is executing a circle to land maneuver and a normal bank results in momentary loss of contact with the airport, he must immediately execute the missed approach procedure. True. False. Missed approach procedures. Each pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when the following condition exists: Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless the inability to see an identifiable part of the airport results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach. FAR 91.175(e) 5. If your transponder fails enroute while you are on an IFR flight in Class A airspace, you should: Discontinue your IFR flight. Request a lower altitude from ATC. Descend to an altitude below 10,000'. Have the transponder repaired before you file another flight plan in which it is required. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight. FAR 91.135(d) 6. If a pilot is qualified to conduct Category II approaches, which is true regarding the Category II manual? All of the answers are correct. It must be available in the aircraft and must be current for that aircraft. It must contain the names of the pilots who are authorized to perform Category II approaches. It must be date stamped by the FAA every thirty days to ensure it is up to date. Category II and Category III manual. no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft in a Category II or a Category III operation unless: There is available in the aircraft a current and approved Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft; The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program contained in the manual. FAR 91.191(a) 7. Standard IFR takeoff minimums for airplanes operating under Part 135, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, are: 1 statute mile visibility for all aircraft. 2 engines or less - 1 statute mile visibility; more than 2 engines - 1/2 statute mile visibility. 2 engines or less - 1/2 statute mile visibility; more than 2 engines - 1/4 mile visibility. 2 engines or more - 1/2 statute mile visibility; 1 engine - 1 statute mile visibility. Standard IFR takeoff minimums for airplanes operating under Part 135, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, are: 2 engines or less - 1 statute mile visibility. More than 2 engines - 1/2 statute mile visibility. FAR 91.175 (f) 8. Regarding airplane flight, the reserve fuel required for an IFR flight is enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, and: 45 minutes at economy cruise consumption. 30 minutes at economy fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. 30 minutes at normal fuel consumption. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to > Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; > Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and > Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. FAR 91.167 (a) 9. A pressurized aircraft operating at a flight level above 25,000' must have an oxygen supply for each occupant in case of a pressure loss. How much must be on hand for each occupant? 20 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 10 minutes. A 10 minute supply is considered adequate in case of a loss of pressurization and the need for an emergency descent. FAR 91.211(b)(1) 10. With two pilots at their stations, when operating a pressurized aircraft equipped with quick donning oxygen masks, one of the pilots NEED NOT WEAR THEIR MASK when the aircraft is at or below: FL 450. FL 420. FL 410. FL 430. No person may operate a civil aircraft with a pressurized cabin at flight altitudes above Flight Level 350, unless one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000" MSL, except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask at or below FL 410 if there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick- donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly secured and sealed. FAR 91.211(b) 11. If for any reason it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station, the other pilot must wear his oxygen mask if the aircraft is above Flight Level: 300. 310. 250. 350. If the aircraft is above FL 350 and there is only one pilot at his station, he must wear and use his oxygen mask. This is true even if the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks. FAR 91.211(b)(2) 12. If the current altimeter setting is 30.10, what is the lowest available high altitude flight level? FL180. FL195. FL190. FL185. The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table: Current altimeter setting Lowest usable flight level 29.92 (or higher) 180 29.91 through 29.42 185 29.41 through 28.92 190 28.91 through 28.42 195 28.41 through 27.92 200 27.91 through 27.42 205 27.41 through 26.92 210 FAR 91.121(B) 13. In executing an instrument approach you have reached "DH" and you have identified the runway approach light system (not including the red terminating bars and red siderow bars). You may now: Execute a missed approach. Descend no lower than 100' above the touchdown zone elevation. Descend to a landing. Continue the approach. Identification of the approach light system only allows descent to no lower than 100’ above touchdown zone elevation. To descend further, identification of the red terminating bars or red side row bars is required, or identification of one of the other listed criteria in Part 91.175. FAR 91.175(c)(3) 14. The altimeter of an airplane which is to be flown under IFR in controlled airspace, must be inspected each: 12 calendar months. 18 calendar months. 6 calendar months. 24 calendar months. FAR 91.411 states that each static pressure system, each altimeter instrument, and each automatic pressure altitude reporting system must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 months. No person may operate an airplane in controlled airspace under IFR at an altitude above the maximum altitude at which all altimeters and the automatic altitude reporting system of that airplane have been tested. FAR 91.411(a)(1) 1. What subject title is contained in the NTSB Part 830? Rules pertaining to the reporting of A/C accidents or incidents and overdue A/C. Federal aviation regulations. Emergency procedures. Flight rules. NTSB 830 contains rules pertaining to: Notification and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents and overdue aircraft, and preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records. NTSB 830 2. NTSB Part 830 requires the operator of an aircraft to notify immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs or in the event of: A near mid-air collision. A failure of the flight control system. Damage to the landing gear. A bird strike. An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: (1) Flight control system malfunction or failure; (2) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; (3) Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; (4) In-flight fire; or (5) Aircraft collide in flight. (6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. (7) For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight); (i) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; (ii) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; (iii) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and (iv) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. b) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident. NTSB 830.5 3. Which of the following requires immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office. All of the answers are correct. Inability of a crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness. Flight control system malfunction or failure. Damage to property, other than the aircraft that exceeds $25,000.00 for repair. (a) An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: (1) Flight control system malfunction or failure; (2) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; (3) Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; (4) In-flight fire; or (5) Aircraft collide in flight. (6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. (7) For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight); (i) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; (ii) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; (iii) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and (iv) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. (b) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident. NTSB 830.5 4. To comply with regulations, which incident would require the operator of a large multiengine aircraft to make immediate notification? Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. Engine failure for any reason during flight. An overdue safety inspection of the aircraft. An inflight electrical failure requiring the sustained use of an Emergency Bus powered by a battery. The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when: (a)(7) For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated take off weight): (i) In flight failure of electrical systems occurs which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a back up source such as battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments. NTSB 830.5(a)(7) 5. When a reportable accident occurs the wreckage of the aircraft must be preserved and must not be disturbed except to the extent necessary to: Remove persons injured or trapped. Protect the wreckage from further damage. Protect the public from injury. All the answers are correct. Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: (1) To remove persons injured or trapped; (2) To protect the wreckage from further damage; or (3) To protect the public from injury. (c) Where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made, if possible, of the original positions and condition of the wreckage and any significant impact marks. (d) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident shall retain all records, reports, internal documents, and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident, until authorized by the Board to the contrary. NTSB 830.10(b) 6. Notification to the NTSB is required whenever there has been: Damage which requires repairs to landing gear or flaps. Damage caused by collision with another aircraft on the ground. Damage to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes. The operator of any civil aircraft or any public aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when: Failure of structural components of a turbine engine occurs, excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes. NTSB 830.5(a)(3) 7. Assume while in flight a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB regulations? An immediate report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office. An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. No notification or report is required. A notification only if requested by the NTSB. The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB filed office when: An in flight fire occurs. NTSB 830.5(a)(4) 8. National Transportation Safety Board regulations require an immediate notification as a result of which incident? Any required crewmember being unable to perform normal flight duties because of illness. Engine failure for any reason during flight. An aircraft is overdue a safety inspection. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. NTSB regulations require an immediate notification when a required flight crewmember is unable to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness. NTSB 830.5 (a)(2) 9. If a person fractures his nose requiring hospitalization for 24 hours this is considered a "serious injury". False. True. "Serious injury" means any injury which: (1) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury was received; (2) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); (3) causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (4) involves any internal organ; or (5) involves second- or third-degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface. NTSB 830.2