In which part of the Federal Air Regulations can you find definitions and abbreviations? Part 1.1. 2. Under which part of Federal Air Regulations will you find the requirements for issuance of a specific pilot or instructor certificate? Part 61 3. To which of the following authorities must you show your pilot certificate if he requests to see it? ALL 4. A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be removed: Provided the person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation. 5. What can occur if you refuse to submit to a test for alcohol when requested? ALL 6. If you have met the requirements of a certificate and an FAA authority issues you a temporary certificate, it is valid for: 120 days. 7. Under which part of Federal Air Regulations can you find the medical requirements for medical certificates? Part 67. 8. Which of the following does not require that the pilot have a type rating? A flight instructor who is giving instrument instruction in a small aircraft. 9. Which of the following must be included in a pilot logbook entry if that entry is required? All of the answers are correct. 10. No person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has: Made at least three takeoffs and three landing within the preceding 90 days. 11. What will occur if TSA issues initial notification of threat assessment? Suspend that certificate, rating or authorization 12. If a pilot makes a change of his permanent mailing address, he must notify the FAA. If he doesn't, his pilot privileges are suspended after: 30 days. 2. Which part of Federal Air Regulations prescribes rules governing the operation of aircraft, which are operated within the United States, including the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast? Part 91. 3. If a Pilot in Command deviates from a rule during an in-flight emergency, he must upon request, submit a written report to: The Administrator. 4. Which of the following are required by FARs regarding operation of civil aircraft? All the answers are correct. 5. You may not drop an object from an aircraft in flight. True, if a hazard to persons or property is created. 6. According to Part 91, if you noticed that one of your passengers was smoking a marijuana cigarette and you chose to look the other way, would you be violating regulations? Yes. 7. Most electronic devices are prohibited from being operated on an aircraft. Three of the following may be operated, which one may not? FM radio. 8. As a preflight action, for a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must familiarize himself with all available information concerning the flight. As a minimum, this information must include: All of the answers are correct. 9. Part 91 requires that flight crewmembers remain at their stations with their seat belts fastened during the flight except: In connection with physiological needs or perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft. 10. Part 91 includes which requirements regarding passenger seat belts as a Pilot in Command's responsibility? Briefing passengers on how to fasten and unfasten their seat belt. 1. Formation flight is authorized under what conditions? No passengers for hire may be carried and there must be prior arrangement between all pilots. 2. Which of the following aircraft has the right of way over the others? An airplane on approach at 400' AGL. 3. If converging, which aircraft has the right of way? A balloon. 4. If, due to an emergency, a pilot is given priority by ATC, A detailed report to the manger of the ATC facility within 48 hours, only if requested. 5. A pilot operating at an airport having an operational control tower requires clearance for: Landing, takeoff, and taxi. 6. If taking off from a satellite airport without an operating control tower located in Class D airspace, when must the pilot of a VFR flight contact the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace? As soon as practicable after departure. 7. Which of the following is required if operating VFR in Class B airspace? Both an operable two-way radio and an operable transponder with altitude reporting capability. 8. The Administrator has the authority to issue a regulation or rule immediately upon determination that any emergency condition exists which is detrimental to the FAA's ability to operate the air traffic control system. True. 9. At which of the following altitudes and above does the minimum VFR visibility of 5 miles apply? 10,000' MSL. 10. What is the minimum cloud clearance for an aircraft operating in Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL? Clear of clouds. 1. Mandatory cruising altitudes are required for VFR flights in cruise more than: 3000' AGL. 2. Pilot currency requirements and controlled airspace visibility requirements all have "night" criteria. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. 3. Which of the following instruments are required for day VFR flight? All of the listed instruments. 4. Except in Alaska, during what period must an aircraft have lighted position lights? Sunset to sunrise. 5. Under which conditions may an aircraft be operated with inoperative instruments or equipment installed? If an approved Minimum equipment list exists and a letter of authorization issued by the FSDO is carried on board. 6. 4096 code transponders with Mode C are required for operations in: All of the answers are correct. 7. If you have an approved TCAS installed in the aircraft: You must have that system on and operating during flight. 8. Which is a requirement to define an area acceptable for test flights? 91.305 Flight test areas. No person may flight test an aircraft except over open water, or sparsely populated areas, having light air traffic. Formerly: All answers are part of the complete description. 9. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? The owner/operator. 10. Which item of equipment must have been inspected during the preceding 24 calendar months? Transponder. 1. What is the maximum airspeed at which an aircraft can operate in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace? 200 knots. 2. Under which of the following conditions may a pilot conduct a VFR flight in Class A airspace? VFR Operations in Class A airspace is not allowed. 3. An airplane flying in VFR conditions at night must carry enough fuel to reach the destination plus: 45 minutes. 4. What is the minimum cloud clearance at which an aircraft may operate if below 10,000' MSL and above 1200' AGL in Class G airspace? 500' below, 1000' above, and 2000' horizontal. 5. The crew must use oxygen at all times when an unpressurized aircraft operates at altitudes above: 14,000'. 6. On aircraft manufactured after March 29, 2002, no person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with: An approved terrain awareness and warning system. 7. "Extended over water operation", with respect to aircraft, other than helicopters, means an operation over water: More than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline. 8. What is the maximum airspeed at altitudes below 10,000'? 250 knots. 9. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft flying at or below 2500 ft. above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class D airspace? 200 knots. 10. What is the maximum airspeed for an aircraft flying in airspace underlying Class B airspace? 200 knots. 11. What is the minimum altitude for an airplane flying over a congested area? 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. 12. Turbine powered airplanes must maintain which traffic pattern altitude when operating in Class D airspace? 1500'. 13. What is the required visibility for an airplane which is not in the airport traffic pattern but is below 1200' AGL in Class G airspace at night? 3 miles. 14. To land an airplane at a private airport within Class E airspace at night, under VFR, with a visibility reported as 2 miles you must: All of the answers are correct. 15. For a fixed wing aircraft, the minimum flight visibility, if no ground visibility is reported, to take off or land at any airport under special VFR, is: One statute mile. 16. No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device. True. 17. No person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an altitude alerting system. True. Helicopter: 1. There are certain ratings that are now obsolete TRUE 20 Minutes or offshore heliport structure Intended to be used Not cause hzards to p or p on the surface Avoid the flow of fixed wing 20 min day or night Enough Visibility to see and avoid Obtain ATC clearance No min is stated When it is necessary to perform an instrument approach to a civil airport=Part 97 of this chapter VOR Ground Check +/- 4 Degrees Which DH or MDA is authorized = The highest DH or MDA listed in the other answers Which is/are the = The flight visibility perscribed 1. After reaching an alternate airport, what approach minimums apply? The published landing minimums at the alternate airport. 2. When making a VOR ground check using a published ground check point, the required tolerance is: +/- 4 degrees. 3. If you make a required VOR equipment check for IFR operations, what must be entered in the aircraft log book or other record? All the listed answers are required for a proper entry. 4. While in Class D airspace, an aircraft pilot performs an ILS to a runway equipped with VASI. If he achieves visual contact with the landing runway and continues his approach to land, he should: Remain at or above the VASI glideslope during his visual approach until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. 5. Which DH or MDA is authorized for use by an IFR pilot? The highest DH or MDA listed in the other answers. 6. What is/are the required weather minimum/s to descend below the DH or MDA on an instrument approach? The flight visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. 7. To be able to descend below 100' on an ILS approach, in addition to the approach light system the pilot must be able to see: Any one of the items listed in the other answers. 8. What is the correct conversion of 2400' RVR to a visibility? 1/2 mile. 1. "No PT" on an instrument approach procedure means: No pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC. 2. Which of the following can be substituted for either an inoperative outer marker or an inoperative middle marker? Compass locator or precision radar. The "enhanced flight vision System" = All 3. If the glideslope becomes inoperative during the conduct of an ILS approach, the pilot should: Use straight-in localizer minimums. 4. If flying an IFR direct flight in mountainous terrain in uncontrolled airspace, the pilot should plan to fly a minimum altitude which is at least: 2,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. 5. Unless there is an MCA, when shall a climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude begin? Immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies. 6. Which is an authorized IFR altitude if flying in uncontrolled airspace? 090 degrees - 7,000'. 7. While climbing to your assigned altitude on an airway, you: Remain on the centerline except to avoid other aircraft or clearing in VFR conditions. 8. An IFR pilot under radar control in controlled airspace: Must make only those position reports as requested by ATC. 1. If the pilot of an IFR flight experiences total communications failure while flying along a federal airway during the enroute phase of his flight, and while in IFR weather conditions, which is the route the pilot should fly? The route which has been received in the last ATC clearance. 2. If you lose communications on an IFR flight in IFR weather conditions, which is correct? Fly the highest of 3 altitudes; last assigned, MEA, or altitude you have been told to expect. 3. If while holding at a fix other than initial approach fix you lose communications, when should you leave the hold? At the expect further clearance time. 4. If on an IFR flight in VFR weather conditions and you experience radio failure, the correct procedure is: Maintain VFR and land as soon as practicable. 5. In executing an instrument approach you have reached "DH" and you have identified the runway approach light system (not including the red terminating bars or red side row bars). You may now: Descend no lower than 100' above the touchdown zone elevation. 6. The altimeter of an aircraft which is to be flown under IFR, must be inspected each: 24 calendar months. 7. On an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions, is it permissible to make a clearing turn prior to descent? Yes. 1. Which of the following is a fuel requirement for IFR flight? All of the listed items are requirements. 2. What are the airplane standard alternate minimums for a nonprecision approach? Ceiling 800' and visibility 2 miles at the time of arrival. 3. Other than for part 121 or Part 135 use, pilots who receive authorization for Category II or Category III approaches should know that this authorization expires: At the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. 4. If an IFR pilot is executing a circle to land maneuver and a normal bank results in momentary loss of contact with the airport, he must immediately execute the missed approach procedure. False. 5. If your transponder fails enroute while you are on an IFR flight in Class A airspace, you should: Have the transponder repaired before you file another flight plan in which it is required. 6. If a pilot is qualified to conduct Category II approaches, which is true regarding the Category II manual? All of the answers are correct. It must be available in the aircraft and must be current for that aircraft. It must contain the names of the pilots who are authorized to perform Category II approaches. It must be date stamped by the FAA every thirty days to ensure it is up to date. Category II and Category III manual. no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft in a Category II or a Category III operation unless: There is available in the aircraft a current and approved Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft; The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program contained in the manual. FAR 91.191(a) 7. Standard IFR takeoff minimums for airplanes operating under Part 135, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, are: 1 statute mile visibility for all aircraft. 2 engines or less - 1 statute mile visibility; more than 2 engines - 1/2 statute mile visibility. 2 engines or less - 1/2 statute mile visibility; more than 2 engines - 1/4 mile visibility. 2 engines or more - 1/2 statute mile visibility; 1 engine - 1 statute mile visibility. Standard IFR takeoff minimums for airplanes operating under Part 135, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, are: 2 engines or less - 1 statute mile visibility. More than 2 engines - 1/2 statute mile visibility. FAR 91.175 (f) 8. Regarding airplane flight, the reserve fuel required for an IFR flight is enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, and: 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. 9. A pressurized aircraft operating at a flight level above 25,000' must have an oxygen supply for each occupant in case of a pressure loss. How much must be on hand for each occupant? 10 minutes. 10. With two pilots at their stations, when operating a pressurized aircraft equipped with quick donning oxygen masks, one of the pilots NEED NOT WEAR THEIR MASK when the aircraft is at or below: FL 410. 11. If for any reason it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station, the other pilot must wear his oxygen mask if the aircraft is above Flight Level: 350. 12. If the current altimeter setting is 30.10, what is the lowest available high altitude flight level? FL180. 13. In executing an instrument approach you have reached "DH" and you have identified the runway approach light system (not including the red terminating bars and red siderow bars). You may now: Descend no lower than 100' above the touchdown zone elevation. 14. The altimeter of an airplane which is to be flown under IFR in controlled airspace, must be inspected each: 24 calendar months. WHICH STATEMENT IS TRUE..290-410 ALL HELIO 30 Minutes 200 Above min STD= 1/2 Statute mile 100 miles ALL >1mi svfr = true At the ETA and 1 hour after the ETA ceiling at least 1000 elev and 400 abv the lowest minima in order to list an airport as an alternate =ceiling 200 above the minimum for the approach to be flown 75 hours in actual or simulated conditions ALL 1. What subject title is contained in the NTSB Part 830? Rules pertaining to the reporting of A/C accidents or incidents and overdue A/C. 2. NTSB Part 830 requires the operator of an aircraft to notify immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs or in the event of: A failure of the flight control system. 3. Which of the following requires immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office. All of the answers are correct. 4. To comply with regulations, which incident would require the operator of a large multiengine aircraft to make immediate notification? An inflight electrical failure requiring the sustained use of an Emergency Bus powered by a battery. 5. When a reportable accident occurs the wreckage of the aircraft must be preserved and must not be disturbed except to the extent necessary to: All the answers are correct. 6. Notification to the NTSB is required whenever there has been: Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes. 7. Assume while in flight a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB regulations? An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. 8. National Transportation Safety Board regulations require an immediate notification as a result of which incident? Any required crewmember being unable to perform normal flight duties because of illness. 9. If a person fractures his nose requiring hospitalization for 24 hours this is considered a "serious injury". False.